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That judgment of the nations scene, I don't see how it could be taken literally.
This does not fulfil "gathered all the nations", or any of the other indications that the N.T. is expecting a general world event rather than a localised event.
In Acts 24:25, it says that he "talked about righteousness, self-control and the judgment to come".
Paul preached to the Gentiles on the basis that "You need to repent, because you are all going to be judged".
originally posted by: WarminIndy
a reply to: maes2
Wow, that just got nuts really fast.
Maes, we all know that Mohammed is not the messenger to come. And Hussein, you are taking that as the actual name of someone?
Hussein, which means the blessed? Wow, talk about yanking Islam into the discussion.
Islam denies the Son, therefore Islam has not found salvation. The Blessed One, is Yeshua HaMoshiac.
This name was not used in the pre-Islamic period,[3] and is recorded to have been first used by the Islamic prophet Muhammad when he named his grandson Husayn ibn Ali, allegedly under the command of the arch-angel Gabriel.[3] --Wiki
originally posted by: jmdewey60
That judgment of the nations scene, I don't see how it could be taken literally.
I can't think of where [Paul] talked about a world judgment, other than a vague reference to "coming wrath".
I think the church changed the world and in a significant way.
It can be taken as a future event, following a change in the condition of the world, which is how all the writers of the New Testament are taking it.
I don't take the imaginative speeches of Paul in Acts as equal in authenticity with what Paul wrote himself.
"Now God commands all men everywhere to repent, because he has fixed a day on which he will judge the world in righteousness" (Acts ch17 vv30-31)
That is really off.
You yourself quoted Acts ch24 as an example of what Paul said, so you were obviously willing to use Acts as source material as long as you thought it was "safe".
It may very well be that people call Jesus "the Word of God" but it never does in the Bible.
We have Jesus AND a warrior called ''faithful and true'', who fights battles with justice. People may argue that this figure is none other than Jesus because he is named ''the word of God'' (a title also used for Jesus). But if that is so, then its very strange that the author stops short of calling him 'Jesus', especially when Jesus is mentioned in the previous verses.
Though you have to consider the likelihood that there was no actual person, Stephen (which means "a crown of glory"), and that it was a device to give a lot of theological exposition in a prophetic way that comes off as therefore authoritative.
It comes in the words of Stephen when he was being tried by the Sanhedrin . . .
That is just hypothetical since we don't know anything of this character, Stephen, outside of Acts.
The fact that the phrase "Son of Man" is not used in the rest of Acts implies that the speeches in Acts, even if written by Luke, were at least written appropriately for each speaker.
That only gives a reason why the writer of Acts would invent a character to say what he says.
Luke does not put the phrase "Son of Man" in Paul's mouth, because Paul apparently never used it. He reserves it for Stephen, who was closer to the Jesus tradition.
I do not accept that Acts was written by Luke.
Therefore "Luke must have written the speeches" is not sufficient reason for dismissing what they say.