It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
No it doesn't. Didn't you or Noreaster read the link in Noreaster's OP?
originally posted by: Toadmund
That theory would suggest that a very dense object would have things coming at it with the same pull as a not so dense object. (these objects being the same size)
Unless of course these sub-atomic particles pass through less dense objects much more easily.
In order to ensure mass proportionality, Fatio assumed that gross matter is extremely permeable to the flux of corpuscles.
The illustration in the OP source shows the concept:
originally posted by: Phage
One more question. Why if, these "impercetable subatomic particles" everywhere, does gravitation closely follow an inverse squared relationship to distance?
I don't know why you're defending it when you said you just learned of it and didn't even know how it addresses the mass-density relationship. Why would you do that?
originally posted by: NorEaster
Just thought I'd share a new (to most of us) notion concerning the actual physical nature of gravity. I'm not sure that I am sold on it, but it sure beats the hell out of a metaphysical version of magnetism, and kicks the f*ck out of an imaginary aether that's made of space-time.
So the fact that the Earth isn't heating up by 100000000000000000000000000 degrees per second should be pretty easy to confirm, right?
shows that earth's temperature would rise by 100000000000000000000000000 degrees per second. Poincaré noticed, "that the earth could not long stand such a regime." Poincaré also analyzed some wave models (Tommasina and Lorentz), remarking that they suffered the same problems as the particle models. To reduce drag, superluminal wave velocities were necessary, and they would still be subject to the heating problem. After describing a similar re-radiation model like Thomson, he concluded: "Such are the complicated hypotheses to which we are led when we seek to make Le Sage's theory tenable".
The illustration in the OP source shows the concept:
Uh huh.
While I understand the illustration, it's hard to make any sense out of it physically since it's hard to imagine what would make rays converge like that from distant sources.
Since it is assumed that some or all of the gravific particles converging on an object are either absorbed or slowed by the object, it follows that the intensity of the flux of gravific particles emanating from the direction of a massive object is less than the flux converging on the object. We can imagine this imbalance of momentum flow - and therefore of the force exerted on any other body in the vicinity - distributed over a spherical surface centered on the object (P4). The imbalance of momentum flow over an entire spherical surface enclosing the object is independent of the size of the enclosing sphere, whereas the surface area of the sphere increases in proportion to the square of the radius. Therefore, the momentum imbalance per unit area decreases inversely as the square of the distance.
originally posted by: bbracken677
a reply to: NorEaster
The error with the Shadow theory is that it would seem to favor both volume and density of the objects involved as opposed to being directly related to mass. I believe practical observable data supports a direct correlation to mass and density.
Picture the dynamics of 3 objects. One an extremely dense and massive object but small, the second a large object of significant mass and a 3rd object which is large with little mass. I do not believe you would get the correct dynamic relationships using the shadow theory of gravity.
I could be mistaken, but that is my take on it.
originally posted by: Phage
a reply to: NorEaster
Right. I had three.
You don't have a question.
And you didn't answer them.
1) How are "imperceptible particles" different from spacetime. You said, "we know they exist." Which imperceptible particles exist? How do we know they exist if they are imperceptible? We know that spacetime exists because observations support its predicted properties.
2) Why do to the "imperceptible particles" produced by the Sun not push the Earth away from the Sun? You said, "That's a clown question and you know it." That is not an answer. It is an evasion to a valid question based on the "theory."
3) Why if, these "imperceptible subatomic particles" are everywhere, does gravitation closely follow an inverse squared relationship to distance? The Sun is by far the most abundant local source of "gama radiation, photons, neutrinos, whatever." You answered this one...sort of.
That does not explain why the force of attraction is related to the inverse square of the distance between bodies. If gravity is a shadow effect the force would would be directly proportionate. A shadow is directly proportionate to the distance between the object casting the shadow and the object upon which the shadow is cast. The Sun has very nearly the same apparent diameter as the Moon. Why does the Earth not orbit the Moon as it does the Sun?
"I would imagine it's because of the constancy of the barrage of stuff from all angles and directions on all material objects. It's that constancy that stabilizes the "formula".
originally posted by: Arbitrageur
a reply to: Phage
You aren't showing the rays coming from infinity which is apparently the idea. I'm not trying to defend it so much as explain what the idea is.
originally posted by: bbracken677
a reply to: NorEaster
It is cut and dried. The effects of gravity are not in question. The relationship between mass and gravity is observable data. Jupiter has a large mass AND possesses a large gravity well. This is not up for debate....it is observable and demonstrable.
The only question is how gravity works....
originally posted by: NorEaster
a reply to: chr0naut
...
After all, how much force would it actually take to "reach out" to the moon and hold it into the orbit it has? I would imagine that it takes a lot. And yet, if this force is emanating from our own planet's core, then why aren't we all crushed to the surface by it? Yes, that seems like a little kid question, but perhaps it only sounds like that because we're so used to the idea that the same force that yields to a leaf in a strong breeze, is the same force that holds the entire moon to its orbit.
...
originally posted by: chr0naut
originally posted by: NorEaster
a reply to: chr0naut
...
After all, how much force would it actually take to "reach out" to the moon and hold it into the orbit it has? I would imagine that it takes a lot. And yet, if this force is emanating from our own planet's core, then why aren't we all crushed to the surface by it? Yes, that seems like a little kid question, but perhaps it only sounds like that because we're so used to the idea that the same force that yields to a leaf in a strong breeze, is the same force that holds the entire moon to its orbit.
...
In the case of the gravity that holds the moon in place, the equations show that the force keeping us on the ground and keeping the moon in orbit is the same. This is where mathematics can actually clarify things by introducing scale to the scenario. In the case of the moon, the force acting upon any particular particle of the moon is smaller than the force upon any similar mass particle at the earth's surface.
Yes, the moon is massive and the force required to hold the entire thing in orbit is similarly massive but the classic 'rubber sheet' analogy does well in explaining how curved space-time could cause bodies to orbit (despite the fact that it is metaphorically recursive, explaining the action of gravity but requiring an understanding of gravity to do so). It provides a scale analog, that we can visualize, to see with our imagination if it would agree with mathematically generated values and with observation.
I myself have not encountered any particular issue with the current curved space-time paradigm of gravitation, but I do admit that my acceptance of the theory is, by this stage of my life, deeply entrenched.