reply to post by Utnapisjtim
I think we've had a discussion on language and linguistics before (unless you're not the main person championing the Odin-Adon comparison on ATS).
But, I suppose I'll rehash my view here as well. The major problem with a number of the connections that you make is this:
Semitic languages (where Adon comes from) are part of the Afro-Asiatic language tree, seen here:
While the Old Norse language (part of Northern Germanic) is on the Indo-European language tree, which can be viewed right here:
Concerning Odin, I stand with the linguists, who state that:
The Old Norse noun óðr may be the origin of the theonym Óðinn (Anglicized as Odin), and it means "mind", "soul" or "spirit" (so used in
stanza 18.1 of the Poetic Edda poem Völuspá). In addition, óðr can also mean "song", "poetry" and "inspiration", and it has connotations of
"possession". It is derived from a Proto-Germanic *wōð- or *wōþ- and it is related to Gothic wôds ("raging", "possessed"), Old High German
wuot ("fury" "rage, to be insane") and the Anglo-Saxon words wód ("fury", "rabies") and wóð ("song", "cry", "voice", "poetry",
"eloquence"). Old Norse derivations include œði "strong excitation, possession".
Ultimately these Germanic words are derived from the Proto-Indo-European word *wāt-, which meant "to blow (on), to fan (flames)", fig. "to
inspire". The same root also appears in Latin vātēs ("seer", "singer"), which is considered to be a Celtic loanword, compare to Irish fāith
("poet", but originally "excited", "inspired"). The root has also been said to appear in Sanskrit vāt- "to fan".
Not to say that there aren't cultural borrowings in play. As I pointed out, Buri, Audumbla, and the Ginnungagap share many similarities with the
Hebraic creation schematic. Similarly (and somewhere on ATS I've got a short-lived thread touching on this) you can see reflections of Ninurta alive
and well in Thor. I do not think that Odin and Adon(is) are the same though. I think that Norse figures have much, much more in common with Celtic
lore than with Mesopotamian lore (compare Tyr and Nuada if you want a fun one).
As for Denmark, I admit I haven't studied the etymological history of the term before. My initial search did bring up your theory, the idea of a
personage named Dan (a redaction of the "Tribe of Dan"), but it also brought up the idea of the Dani, or the Danes, as the origin of the term. I,
personally, knowing that the Danes were a large tribe in Denmark, would probably agree with that origin over the Hebraic one (as I myself don't put
much stock in Biblical history). Also, during my search, I found this:
Most handbooks derive the first part of the word, and the name of the people, from a word meaning "flat land", related to German Tenne
"threshing floor", English den "cave", Sanskrit dhánuṣ- (धनुस्; "desert"). The -mark is believed to mean woodland or borderland
(see marches), with probable references to the border forests in south Schleswig, maybe similar to Finnmark, Telemark, or Dithmarschen.
So, I would say the jury is still out on "Denmark". None-the-less though, and in an attempt to pull this thread back on track, let's circle back to
Yhvh and the Genesis account of creation. You perceive the word "bara" as meaning "fathered". What are your opinions, then, on the female consort
of Yhvh? Do you think it was an act of male parthenogensis? Did Yhvh have a wife?
~ Wandering Scribe