reply to post by AutumnWitch657
I said that "the phenomenon of royals only marrying other royals" did not hold true in the middle ages.
You reply that during the Wars of the Roses two "royal houses" were battling for the throne.
How is this any kind of argument against my comment? How does the fact that they were battling it out show that they were only marrying into other
The way to settle this is to look at the appropriate genealogical tables and look at the women they were marrying.
I get out my trusty copy of the Cambridge Medieval History and advise you to do the same.
One of the "royal houses" in the Wars of the Roses was the house of York.
Let's take that one, and work backwards.
Richard III married Anne, daughter of the Earl of Warwick. Who was not a royal.
His brother Edward IV married Elizabeth Woodville. Who was not a royal.
Their father, Richard Duke of York, was not a king, but he was a descendant of Edward III and representative of the house of York claiming the throne,
which makes him a member of the "royal house" as far as your argument is concerned. He married Cicely Nevill. Who was not a royal.
His father Richard, Earl of Cambridge, married Anne, the grand-daughter of his own uncle. Since she was another descendant of Edward III, I suppose we
can mark her as "royal".
His father, Edmund Duke of York, and son of Edward III, had two wives. One was the daughter of the king of Castille. But the other was daughter of the
Earl of Kent. Not a royal.
While Edward III himself married Philippa, daughter of William of Hainualt. Who was only a Count. Not royal.
What we see in the genealogies of the Middle Ages is that the aristocracy
were marrying among themselves, while the kings were participating in
this marriage market as slightly elevated members of the aristocracy. If you try to narrow it down to "royals only marrying royals", the rebuttal is
in the facts of history.
The idea of royals only marrying other royals really begins with the French monarchy, and especially with Louis XIV. Even then the English and British
monarchs never really bought the idea. Henry VIII notoriously had six wives, and only one was of royal blood. In fact, now I come to think of it, I
can challenge you to identify even one
British ruler since George I who married a member of a royal family. As far as my memory tells me, they
have spent the last three centuries marrying members of the German or British aristocracy.
So "the aristocracy have been marrying among themselves" is a much sounder proposition, historically, then "royal families have only been marrying
edit on 22-12-2013 by DISRAELI because: (no reason given)