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. . . insistence that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language to make 3 nights actually mean 2 nights is indeed hypothetical.
re: "That's just hypothetical until you find an example of that."
I agree that the 6th day crucifixion adherent's insistence that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language to make 3 nights actually mean 2 nights is indeed hypothetical. That is why I started this topic - to see if they could provide an actual example of a statement delineating a specific number of daytimes and/or a specific number of night times when it absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific daytimes and at least a part of each one of the specific night times.
note*: not actually Jesus' name, but an archaic version of "Joshua" not used as a name in the time of Christ.
What ever Yahoshua* meant by 3 days and 3 nights in the heart of the earth is exactly what happened and The Truth.
And what do you mean by "The Truth" capitalized? Are you claiming to be the keeper of the truth, as if you are God's special prophet of truthfulness? Just wondering. I mean that we weren't there walking alongside of Jesus counting the days for him.
The consensus of modern scholarship is that the New Testament accounts represent a crucifixion occurring on a Friday, but a Thursday or Wednesday crucifixion have also been proposed.
originally posted by: rstrats
Perhaps a further rewording of the OP will make it a bit more clear: Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day of the week crucifixion folks, they frequently assert that it is using common Jewish idiomatic language. I wonder if anyone knows of any writing that shows an example from the first century or before regarding a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights? If it is using common idiomatic language, there ought to be examples of that usage in order to be able to make that assertion.
And remember, the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. There are other topics that do that. However, there are some who say that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language such as the Messiah saying that He would be in the heart of the earth for 3 nights when He knew that it would only be for 2 nights. But in order to say that it was common, one would have to know of other instances where the same pattern was used. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise. So far no one has come forth with any.
originally posted by: rstrats
So why do you suppose they say it is using common Jewish idiomatic language if they don't have any examples in order to make that statement?