Originally posted by jsobecky
This is why I said previously that hypocrisy is a thing that some of us are born with.
Hopefully you also would agree that we are also born with Self Awarenss/Conscience, some degree of Objective Reasoning and the Ability to Learn and
Mold ourselves into who we are on a personal level, again to atleast some degree. Not that everyone uses such abilities or even if they do that they
do so in the best way, of course, but it is atleast some probability that things can change.
They are both. Criminal because they chose that path, victims because of how they are treated.
Ok, now here is the problem I am having with this though. Also, it's not like I don't understand the functional side of it, it's the logic behind
that function that I am unable to understand as Valid. For example, using your posts from this topic:
1. They are treated as criminals because the law says they are criminals &
2. victims because of how they are treated.
3. Criminal because they chose that path.
So using 1. & 2., wouldn't that mean that their Victim status results from the Law which is Criminal in it's design???
Or is it that they are, using quote 3., the Criminal by their own choosing who is guilty of the Criminal Treatment of themselves???
Also, exactly what is included in the idea that they Choose to be Criminals??? Are you trying to imply that they chose the lifestyle of a Prostitute
versus the lifestyle of a Hollywood Actress or Successful Business Woman???
Don't get me wrong, I'm not trying to sell anyone into believing the 'Hooker with the Heart of Gold' story or anything. However, I am trying to
establish the fact that 'Their Choice' in many or most cases is one that is heavily Coerced' by factors which are overwhelming to a point which is
beyond their control. Many times it is simply a forced desicion of accepting the lesser of two evils in order for their own survival. For example,
I'm sure many of them figure that atleast Consentual Sexual Services is better than Selling Weapons & Drugs, Theft or Robbery since atleast the
Intent is not one which is directed toward the Victimizing of some other person.
One last point which I would like to point out because I think it fits here and is something for others to think about. I know a woman who worked as
a Dominatrix which is legal. One of her customers, a young military soldier, paid her very well for providing the service of tying him up and beating
him in the testicles in various ways. She of course would pause now and then allowing him to recover between rounds of what was obviously Painful,
yet Knowingly Requested and Repeatedly Purchased Physical Abuse.
Now, if it is not considered Criminal to mash this guys balls as a service which he requested because, for some reason of which I will never know or
understand, he found pleasure from it. How the hell can anyone justify the notion that it is Criminal to be a Prostitute??? In both cases we have a
payment which is agreed upon by both parties for services rendered involving those two parties who consentually entered into the transaction of their