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Originally posted by begoodbees
reply to post by Sigismundus
What you have sited refers to the Israelite's falling into sin/sodomy/paganism and then repenting and expelling the whores. I fail to see your point. You are giving examples of sodomy being called sin and then done away with by righteous kings. The male prostitutes were holy to the pagans/sodomites religion not the Hebrew religion, I don't see how you failed to recognize that. The ancient greeks were sick pedophiles that is a known fact. The bible says it is a sin, it does not say that no Hebrew ever sinned, you are drawing some very weak conclusions based on what you want to believe. Also the word confusion in 1 Samuel 20 would be better translated as shame. So Saul is mad at the shameful acts of his son. How does this help your case?edit on 25-3-2013 by begoodbees because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by begoodbees
reply to post by Sigismundus
Wow, you are still missing the point. Everything you are presenting is proof that the Hebrew faith (the bible) is against homosexuality.edit on 25-3-2013 by begoodbees because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by gncnew
Originally posted by Sigismundus
reply to post by gncnew
Hi GNC
It seems to me that Equality For All means Equality for All means Equality for All means Equality for ALL, not just for what we laughingly refer to as 'the breeder population.'
As for the religious aspects to this discussion, you have homework to do, apparently.
I dont want to... you have it covered just fine.
I'm not surprised a bit though.