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Originally posted by stargatetravels
So he was selling firearms that had the serial numbers removed, making it illegal to sell them nd the authorities come and confiscate the illegal weapons and people are talking about tyrannical governments and "this is why we need guns"
Like....what?
What the guy was doing was illegal??
Are the pro-gun crowd so deluded that they defend even criminal action as long as it involves a gun owner?
Wow
Originally posted by _BoneZ_
Originally posted by solomons path
Not if they are antique or pre-68. Which as a major collector . . . he had a lot of.
We're not talking about antique guns here. The article clearly quotes investigators as saying the guns weren't properly marked. I'm pretty sure investigators know that antique guns won't have serial numbers.
Originally posted by solomons path
markings is not the same as "serial number"
Markings include the serial number. Hence why the article also quotes investigators as saying the absence of markings would make the guns untraceable. If I removed just the manufacturer info from my guns, would that make the gun untraceable? No. Removal of the serial number would, however.
What you're doing here is cherry-picking, and trying to spin the truth where no spin is needed.
Originally posted by Xcathdra
Originally posted by _BoneZ_
Originally posted by snarky412
I meant to ask the gun people here, what do they mean by the guns aren't 'marked'?
Just curious......
Most guns have serial numbers on them so that they can be traced. "Unmarked" would mean that the serial number is non-existent, i.e. removed. Therefore, making the gun untraceable..
Removing a serial number from a firearm is illegal in many places. As is possession and sale of a firearm that had the serial number removed, if I'm not mistaken.
Also a person must have a FFL in order to sell fire arms across state lines. Since this case comes from the feds, federal laws were broken.
Originally posted by ajay59
Originally posted by Lil Drummerboy
maybe he was selling to mexico
just cause he has no violations or record could mean he just hadnt been caught yet
Maybe the feds just do not want any competition in selling firearms to certain Mexicans. Maybe it is possible that he was upsetting the imbalance in Mexico that was created by Obama and Holder.
Originally posted by stargatetravels
So he was selling firearms that had the serial numbers removed, making it illegal to sell them nd the authorities come and confiscate the illegal weapons and people are talking about tyrannical governments and "this is why we need guns"
Like....what?
What the guy was doing was illegal??
Are the pro-gun crowd so deluded that they defend even criminal action as long as it involves a gun owner?
Wow
Originally posted by 2ndthought
Originally posted by _BoneZ_
Originally posted by solomons path
Not if they are antique or pre-68. Which as a major collector . . . he had a lot of.
We're not talking about antique guns here. The article clearly quotes investigators as saying the guns weren't properly marked. I'm pretty sure investigators know that antique guns won't have serial numbers.
Originally posted by solomons path
markings is not the same as "serial number"
Markings include the serial number. Hence why the article also quotes investigators as saying the absence of markings would make the guns untraceable. If I removed just the manufacturer info from my guns, would that make the gun untraceable? No. Removal of the serial number would, however.
What you're doing here is cherry-picking, and trying to spin the truth where no spin is needed.
Excuse me? Could you point out these 'quotes'? I believe the article states that the investigators 'alleged'. Far cry from a quote.
Also, we are indeed talking about antiques here. Check out his website. www.adamsguns.com... .
You'll see that most are antiques. And many being pre-1968, without serial numbers. Hence, no markings.
Who's picking the cherries?edit on 24-2-2013 by 2ndthought because: (no reason given)