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Originally posted by Deetermined
reply to post by Akragon
As for strike one, Paul is basically saying the same thing Jesus did. You may have bolded that no one can be plucked out of the Father's hand, but you ignore that right before that statement, that no one can be plucked from Jesus hand either.
I've already explained in this thread why Jesus told everyone that the Father was greater than he. It was because Jesus was in the flesh. God the Father pulled the strings of Jesus while he was here on earth, therefore, making God the Father greater than Jesus during the time he was here on earth.
As for strike two, Paul may have used the term "father" (lower case) to show that he loved them like a father because he would not only instruct them in Christ, but love them in Christ like a real father would. Paul never asked the Corinthians to call him father, now did he? Jesus said not to have anyone CALL you father.
As for strike three, Paul was talking about the trespasses against God, not man. The Lord's prayer mentions both. We are to ask God for forgiveness against our trespasses against him just like we are to ask for forgiveness from other men for the ones we commit against them. The blood of Jesus allows us forgiveness from the trespasses we make against both of them.
edit on 14-2-2013 by Deetermined because: (no reason given)
I believe that is what it means by "blaspheme against the Holy Spirit" (as was pointed out earlier by Mark 3:30).
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by Akragon
You left out the precise explanation of the unforgivable sin...
(See Mark 3:29-30)
edit on 14-2-2013 by NOTurTypical because: (no reason given)
This is to point out to Akragon that Jesus knew He was deity.
So whos correct?
The author of Mark... Or the words of Jesus?
Originally posted by Deetermined
reply to post by Akragon
So whos correct?
The author of Mark... Or the words of Jesus?
What are you talking about? They both mean the same thing.
It was one thing to condemn Jesus' actions. It's another to say that the spirit inside of him came from devil.
To doubt Jesus was forgivable. To go as far as to call him a man filled with the devil was another.
Even Jesus' disciples doubted him at one time or another, but they never thought, suspected, or accused him of receiving his power from Satan.
Originally posted by Akragon
Alrighty...
Though I don't see a point... you'll likely just explain it away just like everyone else tries to..
Paul.
Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
Jesus
27 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:
28 And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.
29 My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.
Strike one...
Paul
1Cor.4
[15] For though you have countless guides in Christ, you do not have many fathers. For I became your father in Christ Jesus through the gospel..
Jesus
Matthew 23:9
And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven.
Strike two...
Paul
Eph.1
[7] In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of our trespasses, according to the riches of his grace
The lords prayer?
14 For if ye forgive men their trespasses, your heavenly Father will also forgive you:
15 But if ye forgive not men their trespasses, neither will your Father forgive your trespasses.
Strike three!!
Yerrr outa there Paul!!!
So Jesus saying nothing about being judged on faith means Paul added that doctrine in himself in my opinion.
Originally posted by 3NL1GHT3N3D1
reply to post by Deetermined
I know Jesus talked about faith, I'm saying Jesus didn't mean it in the same way as Paul does.
Paul perverted the meaning of faith, saying it meant faith in Jesus' resurrection. That's not the way Jesus was using it, he never mentioned his death while talking about faith.
In what context did the OT use the word faith if not about Jesus' death? Faith is a pretty common word throughout the OT. What Jesus meant by faith is not what you think it is, you have been given the wrong interpretation in my opinion.
And where does he say the word faith?
We resurrected when we were literally born again. We died in a previous life then "resurrected" into this new body, and it will happen over and over again forever.
Why would Jesus say he was the resurrection in present tense? If he hadn't resurrected yet, he would have used past tense.
The bible is a book written by men, meaning it is prone to manipulation.