Yahweh Banned from Catholic Mass?

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posted on Feb, 2 2013 @ 12:53 PM
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Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
 


P.S. "Moses" is not Hebrew either, his name would be "Moshe" in Hebrew.


Correct. Do you see why I included the name Moses/M-oshe with H-osea, H-oshea, and Oshea?

Jeh oshea or Jehoshea, Joshua's true name. Drop the "o" and second "e" and add an "s" and you get Jehshas which means EhJeh delivers.

I know more Hebrew than your antichrist teachers want you to know.




posted on Feb, 2 2013 @ 01:19 PM
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reply to post by truejew
 


You don't know any Hebrew, you're using a Latinized spelling that's only 500 years old. I just linked Hebrew alphabet and phonics listings that show there is no J letter or J phonetic enunciation in Hebrew.

Click the link.



posted on Feb, 2 2013 @ 04:23 PM
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Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by truejew
 


You don't know any Hebrew, you're using a Latinized spelling that's only 500 years old. I just linked Hebrew alphabet and phonics listings that show there is no J letter or J phonetic enunciation in Hebrew.

Click the link.


Where did the "J" sound in Jesus come from? It did not just suddenly appear 500 years ago. You have been shown proof that you are wrong about no "J" sound in Greek. You have been shown that the Egyptian language that the Hebrews spoke in Egypt and is the basis of the Hebrew language has a "J" sound.



posted on Feb, 2 2013 @ 09:34 PM
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reply to post by truejew
 


I've been shown NO SUCH thing, in fact just the opposite. I've linked both Greek and Hebrew phonetic pages that clearly state exactly what I've said. And if you want to know the history of the letter J there are numerous web pages that will detail that info for you. The first recorded use of the letter J was only 500 years ago.


A distinctive usage emerged in Middle High German. [3] Gian Giorgio Trissino (1478–1550) was the first to explicitly distinguish I and J as representing separate sounds, in his pistola del Trissino de le lettere nuωvamente aggiunte ne la lingua italiana ("Trissino's epistle about the letters recently added in the Italian language") of 1524.


Letter J, History, Wiki.

You can't just arbitrarily re-write the history and structure of two of the world's oldest languages because you can't accept facts.

Again, click the link to Hebrew phonetics provided earlier. You'll see there is no letter J in the Hebrew alphabet, and when you look at the phonetic enunciation chart on that page you can clearly see there is no J sound.

edit on 2-2-2013 by NOTurTypical because: (no reason given)



posted on Feb, 2 2013 @ 10:59 PM
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reply to post by NOTurTypical
 


Here is a reminder...









posted on Feb, 3 2013 @ 12:37 AM
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"Jod"? There is no such Hebrew letter. It's called a "Yod". And pronounced the same as spelled.


Go tell me what the pronunciation is for Strong's #2424 (Iesous). Copy paste it for us, tell us what it says.


Btw, you need to source off-site content.
edit on 3-2-2013 by NOTurTypical because: (no reason given)



posted on Feb, 3 2013 @ 07:51 AM
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Originally posted by NOTurTypical
"Jod"? There is no such Hebrew letter. It's called a "Yod". And pronounced the same as spelled.


Is Merriam-Webster wrong?


Definition of JOD variant spelling of yod


jod


Originally posted by NOTurTypical

Go tell me what the pronunciation is for Strong's #2424 (Iesous). Copy paste it for us, tell us what it says.


Is Bruce Metzger wrong?


Bruce Manning Metzger (9 February 1914 – 13 February 2007) was an American biblical scholar and textual critic who was a longtime professor at Princeton Theological Seminary and Bible editor who served on the board of the American Bible Society and United Bible Societies. He was a scholar of Greek, New Testament, and New Testament Textual Criticism, and wrote prolifically on these subjects. Metzger is widely-considered to be one of the most influential New Testament scholars of the 20th century.


Bruce M. Metzger


You are falling for the conspiracy to stop the only name by which we must be saved, Jesus.

Acts 4:12-18 (KJV)
12Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved. 13Now when they saw the boldness of Peter and John, and perceived that they were unlearned and ignorant men, they marvelled; and they took knowledge of them, that they had been with Jesus. 14And beholding the man which was healed standing with them, they could say nothing against it. 15But when they had commanded them to go aside out of the council, they conferred among themselves, 16Saying, What shall we do to these men? for that indeed a notable miracle hath been done by them is manifest to all them that dwell in Jerusalem; and we cannot deny it. 17But that it spread no further among the people, let us straitly threaten them, that they speak henceforth to no man in this name. 18And they called them, and commanded them not to speak at all nor teach in the name of Jesus.



posted on Feb, 3 2013 @ 10:16 AM
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reply to post by truejew
 


"Jod" would be an English variant spelling in an English dictionary. That's fine if you want to write Hebrew letter is English, but that's quite irrelevant in Hebrew and especially first century Hebrew. That's why I source Hebrew linguistic sources for facts on Hebrew. English is Latinized. English utilizes a J, Hebrew doesn't. In Hebrew it's called a "yod" and pronounced "yOd".

The late Dr. Metzger is one of my favorite textal critics who ever lived. But he's a textual critic, not a lexiconigrapher or expert in Biblical languages for one thing. And secondly as pointed out the last time that photo was brought up by a member here the late Dr. Was giving and English equivalent for a Greek diphthong. That's the English equivalent, but again that doesn't change the Greek rendering of the iota (YO-tah) and epsilon (e).

Iesous in Greek is pronounced "ee-YAY-soos", as Strong's #2424, Wikipedia, and the New Testament Greek Lexicon all show.


Since you qualified Mirriam Webster as a reputable source, (and it is), please refer to it and tell everyone what it has as the Greek and Hebrew names for the late Latin period Name Jesus:

Greek --->
Hebrew -->

And again, you must have missed it in the last post, what does Strong's #2424 say is the pronunciation of the Greek "Iesous"?


edit on 3-2-2013 by NOTurTypical because: (no reason given)



posted on Feb, 3 2013 @ 01:54 PM
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reply to post by NOTurTypical
 


How many names are given by which we must be saved?



posted on Feb, 3 2013 @ 02:10 PM
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Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by NOTurTypical
 


How many names are given by which we must be saved?


I'm not answering any questions until you answer my last two, that's how dialogue works.



posted on Feb, 3 2013 @ 03:51 PM
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Originally posted by NOTurTypical

Originally posted by truejew
reply to post by NOTurTypical
 


How many names are given by which we must be saved?


I'm not answering any questions until you answer my last two, that's how dialogue works.


Any "scholar" who contradicts Scripture is lying.

Romans 1:22 (KJV)
22Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,

Acts 4:12-13 (KJV)
12Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.

There is one name not three. In your view Yahshua, Iesous, and Jesus are pronounced differently and are therefore three names. In my view Yehshas, Iesous, and Jesus are pronounced the same and are therefore one name.

You are being deceived by the descendants of the Pharisees into rejecting the name of Jesus.



posted on Feb, 4 2013 @ 12:48 AM
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reply to post by truejew
 


It's ironic because you are claiming to be wise as well...

No, there is no letter j in (Ancient) Hebrew.

j came later as a derivative of i, which is why iesus (in Latin) became jesus.

And even IF it were always pronounced as the "j" sound, that would not change the fact that "s" and "sh" and "shua" and "sus" are different sounds and therefore the two names "yeshua" and "jesus" are NOT pronounced the same.



posted on Feb, 4 2013 @ 01:39 AM
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reply to post by truejew
 


That's not an answer to either of my last two questions.



posted on Feb, 4 2013 @ 05:27 AM
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Originally posted by arpgme
reply to post by truejew
 


It's ironic because you are claiming to be wise as well...


I have not made that claim.


Originally posted by arpgme

No, there is no letter j in (Ancient) Hebrew.


Your claim would be hard to prove. Since little is known about the pronounciation of ancient Hebrew. What is known is ancient Hebrew is based on the Egyptian language which did have a "J" sound.


Originally posted by arpgme

j came later as a derivative of i, which is why iesus (in Latin) became jesus.


You are speaking of the written "J". The reason that the "I" could be replaced with the written "J" was that the "I" already had the "J" sound when followed by a vowel.


Originally posted by arpgme

And even IF it were always pronounced as the "j" sound, that would not change the fact that "s" and "sh" and "shua" and "sus" are different sounds and therefore the two names "yeshua" and "jesus" are NOT pronounced the same.


"Shu(a) is the Egyptian sky god. The correct word would be hoshea which would be shortened to shas. So we have Yeh shas, pronounced the same as our Jesus.

God has not allowed His only name by which we must be saved to be changed, lost, or corrupted.
edit on 4-2-2013 by truejew because: (no reason given)





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