posted on Jan, 19 2013 @ 06:26 PM
So according to Piers, out of all the guns in the US, only .004% are used in gun murders.
11,000 / 300,000,000 = .00003667 (I even rounded up and generously left the gang bangers in there)
Whereas, in the UK where there are "zero" guns, but 35 murders a year. Since I can't divide by zero, let's say there are even 250,000 guns...
35 / 250,000 = .00014
In conclusion, even if the UK had over 250,000x the amount of guns Piers claims, .014% of them would have been used in murders.
.004% < .014%
Are my numbers wrong, or is this guy just a complete tool?
Seems like that little island country is a statistical phenomenon if "zero" guns can result in 35 gun murders eh?
edit on 19-1-2013 by Frettin because: (no reason given)