a former Evangelical "born again" explains why Protestantism isn't true

reply to post by colbe


The Protestant movement may be full of heresies but so is the Catholic church. Both of them are FILLED with pagan additions and bastardizations of the true faith and message of the One known as Yehoshuah ha'Mashiach. So I find it extremely hilarious that he would walk away from the Protestant movement and go to the Catholic church which the Protestant movement shares many pagan teachings with.

Originally posted by LazarusTsiyr
reply to post by colbe

 

The Protestant movement may be full of heresies but so is the Catholic church. Both of them are FILLED with pagan additions and bastardizations of the true faith and message of the One known as Yehoshuah ha'Mashiach. So I find it extremely hilarious that he would walk away from the Protestant movement and go to the Catholic church which the Protestant movement shares many pagan teachings with.

The Catholic Church is a daughter of the whore of Babylon. Which means that Protestants are grand daughters of the whore. The "sacred name" movement ignores the teachings of the Catholics and Protestants, but instead of looking to true Judaism to be their source, they base their teachings off of the whore. Therefore making themselves to be another daughter of the whore.

Jesus, not Yehoshuah, made His feelings known about the whore and her descendants when He preached against the Pharisees.

Originally posted by truejew
Jesus, not Yehoshuah, made His feelings known about the whore and her descendants when He preached against the Pharisees.

You know, if Jesus was God's real name, isn't it weird that so many Jews (who would tear their clothes and wail at any blasphemy, as well as stone the person committing it) would name their kid Jesus? Was Jesus a common name back when he was alive?

Doesn't make much sense, it seems to me. Another nail in the coffin of Reckart's stupid theory.

Originally posted by adjensen

Originally posted by truejew
Jesus, not Yehoshuah, made His feelings known about the whore and her descendants when He preached against the Pharisees.

You know, if Jesus was God's real name, isn't it weird that so many Jews (who would tear their clothes and wail at any blasphemy, as well as stone the person committing it) would name their kid Jesus? Was Jesus a common name back when he was alive?

Doesn't make much sense, it seems to me. Another nail in the coffin of Reckart's stupid theory.

Yehshas, pronounced Jesus, and neither written nor pronounced Yeshua, goes back to the Old Testament. Joshua's real name is Jesus. Since Jesus means EhJeh saves, it is not blasphemy for someone else to be named Jesus, just as it is not blasphemy to be named Israel.

Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by adjensen

Originally posted by truejew
Jesus, not Yehoshuah, made His feelings known about the whore and her descendants when He preached against the Pharisees.

You know, if Jesus was God's real name, isn't it weird that so many Jews (who would tear their clothes and wail at any blasphemy, as well as stone the person committing it) would name their kid Jesus? Was Jesus a common name back when he was alive?

Doesn't make much sense, it seems to me. Another nail in the coffin of Reckart's stupid theory.

Yehshas, pronounced Jesus, and neither written nor pronounced Yeshua, goes back to the Old Testament. Joshua's real name is Jesus. Since Jesus means EhJeh saves, it is not blasphemy for someone else to be named Jesus, just as it is not blasphemy to be named Israel.

Given that Israel isn't God, even the Jews wouldn't say that it was blasphemous, but they most certainly would say that using a name that couldn't be spoken or written to call your kid to supper would be.

Since you treat his name as a magic spell in your rites, aren't you more than a little concerned that you're baptizing people in the name of same random Hispanic guy? Though I suppose that, with magic spells, it comes down to pronunciation, so "hey-soos" probably wouldn't be confused by the powers you're invoking. Still, if the Hebrews pronounced Jesus as "gee-zus", the way you claim (despite them not having a "J" sound,) then it stands to reason that there were all sorts of "gee-zus"s running around at the time, so you're most likely baptizing in the wrong name anyway.

Like I said, if you take ten seconds to think through Reckart's theory logically, you'd realize it's impossible.

Originally posted by adjensen

Given that Israel isn't God, even the Jews wouldn't say that it was blasphemous, but they most certainly would say that using a name that couldn't be spoken or written to call your kid to supper would be.

You are showing your ignorance on this topic. What do you think the "el" in Israel means? Can you provide Scripture for the idea that God's name can not be written or spoken, or is that coming from Babylonian Judaism?

Originally posted by adjensen

Since you treat his name as a magic spell in your rites,

That is incorrect. If you want to make accusations of magic spells, you should look to those teaching YHWH. YHWH is used in witchcraft.

Originally posted by adjensen

(despite them not having a "J" sound,)

I have shown several times that the "J" sound existed all the way back to ancient Egypt.

It is time to put away your ignorance and child like attacks.

Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by adjensen

(despite them not having a "J" sound,)

I have shown several times that the "J" sound existed all the way back to ancient Egypt.

Unless you did it somewhere else, the last that I saw of you and ancient Hebrew was your demonstration that you had no knowledge of it ("You don't know a lick of Hebrew", I believe, were NOTurTypical's words -- I know for a fact that he has studied ancient languages, so I'll take his opinion of your level of comprehension as being reasonable.)

I've asked you numerous times for your and Reckart's academic credentials as regards the formal study of ancient languages, and you've ignored me every time. Care to enlighten me this time?

Here is the evidence of the "J" sound in ancient Egypt again.



NOTurTypical only has knowledge of the Hebrew language that came out of Babylon. It is not real Hebrew and is very different from ancient Hebrew which came from Egypt.

Originally posted by truejew
NOTurTypical only has knowledge of the Hebrew language that came out of Babylon. It is not real Hebrew and is very different from ancient Hebrew which came from Egypt.

Thanks for ignoring my question again, but unless you demonstrate some actual academic study of ancient languages, you are not a credible source for the claim that the Egyptians had a "J" sound, or that "your Hebrew" is the "real Hebrew" or that the ancient Hebrews carried the "J" sound to their "real Hebrew" from Egyptian.

reply to post by adjensen


You can also see The Hieroglyphic Phonetic Alphabet chart at the link below.

Egyptian Hieroglyphs and Education. Ancient Egypt

Your sources claim the "J" sound did not exist until the 16th century AD.

reply to post by truejew


Um, I can't help but notice the "Atlantis" and "Life on Mars" links at the top of the page... be sure to read the debate thread listed in my .sig

Again, I know next to nothing about ancient languages -- why should I take your (or "Atlantis boy"s) word for something that actual linguists and historians say isn't true?

Originally posted by adjensen
reply to post by truejew

 

Um, I can't help but notice the "Atlantis" and "Life on Mars" links at the top of the page... be sure to read the debate thread listed in my .sig

Again, I know next to nothing about ancient languages -- why should I take your (or "Atlantis boy"s) word for something that actual linguists and historians say isn't true?

Can you post a link to these "actual linguists and historians" of the ancient Egyptian language who claim there was no "J" sound in the ancient Egyptian language? I have not heard of any.

Originally posted by truejew
Can you post a link to these "actual linguists and historians" of the ancient Egyptian language who claim there was no "J" sound in the ancient Egyptian language? I have not heard of any.

You still have not answered my repeated question as to your own credentials... but you think I should be answering yours?

There are plenty of people with actual degrees and backgrounds in these fields who say that there was no "J" sound in the Hebrew language in the time of Christ, look 'em up yourself if you're so concerned about it.

Originally posted by adjensen

Originally posted by truejew
Can you post a link to these "actual linguists and historians" of the ancient Egyptian language who claim there was no "J" sound in the ancient Egyptian language? I have not heard of any.

You still have not answered my repeated question as to your own credentials... but you think I should be answering yours?

There are plenty of people with actual degrees and backgrounds in these fields who say that there was no "J" sound in the Hebrew language in the time of Christ, look 'em up yourself if you're so concerned about it.

However, I said Egyptian.

Originally posted by truejew
However, I said Egyptian.

And I said that Egyptian is irrelevant, as Egyptian is not Hebrew. And with your obvious lack of academic training, there is no reason to take your word for there being any connection between the languages, since you are clearly motivated by your beliefs, not the facts.

On this matter, you have absolutely no credibility.

Originally posted by adjensen

And I said that Egyptian is irrelevant, as Egyptian is not Hebrew.

Incorrect. The Hebrews spoke Egyptian in Egypt. After coming out of Egypt, the ancient Hebrew language was formed from Egyptian. In addition, it proves that the "J" sound did exist before the 16th century AD.

Originally posted by adjensen

And with your obvious lack of academic training, there is no reason to take your word for there being any connection between the languages, since you are clearly motivated by your beliefs, not the facts.

I would not be so quick to dismiss one with facts due to lack of training by Pharisees.

1 Corinthians 1:26-30 (KJV)
26For ye see your calling, brethren, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called: 27But God hath chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise; and God hath chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty; 28And base things of the world, and things which are despised, hath God chosen, yea, and things which are not, to bring to nought things that are: 29That no flesh should glory in his presence.

Originally posted by adjensen

On this matter, you have absolutely no credibility.

A person who claims to be a Christian, but teaches that Jesus Christ did not come in the flesh, such as yourself, has no credibility.

Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by adjensen

And I said that Egyptian is irrelevant, as Egyptian is not Hebrew.

Incorrect. The Hebrews spoke Egyptian in Egypt. After coming out of Egypt, the ancient Hebrew language was formed from Egyptian. In addition, it proves that the "J" sound did exist before the 16th century AD.

For the millionth time, prove it. With evidence from linguists and historians, not "Atlantis and Life on Mars" crackpots.

A person who claims to be a Christian, but teaches that Jesus Christ did not come in the flesh, such as yourself, has no credibility.

When have I claimed that I didn't believe in the Incarnation? Proof of that, please, or a retraction and apology if none is forthcoming.

Originally posted by adjensen

For the millionth time, prove it.

What language do you think the Hebrews spoke in Egypt?

Originally posted by adjensen

When have I claimed that I didn't believe in the Incarnation? Proof of that, please, or a retraction and apology if none is forthcoming.

Since you are writing against the name of Jesus, you are writing against Jesus Christ coming in the flesh. You are joining up on the antichrist side, which is the goal of all this sacred name, YHWH, Yah, Yahweh, Yahshua, teaching and why it is quickly gaining so much support during this time of our history. As the prophecy says, before the antichrist comes, there will be a falling away.

Originally posted by truejew

Originally posted by adjensen

For the millionth time, prove it.

What language do you think the Hebrews spoke in Egypt?

What language do you think Hispanics speak in the United States?

Since you are writing against the name of Jesus, you are writing against Jesus Christ coming in the flesh.

More of your "magic spells and incantations."

Saying that God's name hasn't always been the literal "gee-zus" has nothing to do with anything apart from semantics.

You're an unrepentant liar.

Originally posted by adjensen

What language do you think Hispanics speak in the United States?

During the days of Jesus, the Jews spoke Greek. During their time in Egypt, they spoke Egyptian.

Originally posted by adjensen

More of your "magic spells and incantations."

More false accusations. The name of Jesus is no more a magic spell than your name is. If you want magic spells, look into the use of YHWH in calling on demonic spirits.

Originally posted by adjensen

You're an unrepentant liar.

Again, a false accusation. Also, you are the one teaching that repentance and baptism are not necessary for salvation.