posted on Dec, 9 2012 @ 06:50 PM
Originally posted by prevenge
you'll just have to learn more later ...
...and then reflect back upon your original suppositions with a more jaw droppingness, more eye wideningness... position.
believe English is a precise language? I thought you were joking. You realize how often the language changes? From city to city,
region to region, country to country, time to time?
Take a word, any word. Inspired by your username, I'll start with "revenge".
From the OED,
~1525: Þai socht How to rewenge
come þai mocht.
~1553: e ranne vpon his enemies, and vnmyndefull of all thynges sauing of reueng
, slewe many wyth hys pike and dyuers wyth hys sworde.
~1592: The blood of the iust Abel cried..for vengeance & reuenge
on the murderer.
not until ~1690 do we get the current spelling: Private Revenge
therefore is universally to be condemn'd, as utterly unlawful.
That's 4 different spellings with 4 different gematria values, all in just 200 years time.
And just looking at the rest of the words in those quotes... vnmyndefull instead of unmindful; thynges instead of things; hys instead of his, etc.
There's no consistency in spelling. Even today you've got colour vs color; realize vs realise; etc. These are not numerically equivalent. Therefore
it is impossible that English is a "numerological precisely created KABALLISTIC language".