posted on Nov, 19 2012 @ 05:23 AM
Originally posted by DeadSeraph
There was no such thing as "Palestinians" in the 1500's.
No but that's when Gaza was formed, in a region which has been inhabited by the same indigenous peoples of that area for 5000 years. Philistines and
Egyptians claiming leadership to the area long before anyone else, so you can call them Palestinians, call them what you like, but these people didn't
just suddenly up sticks and move into the area to be bombed and pretend their land was being stolen!!
So again, after 5000 years, where do you want them to go?
you conveniently omit the fact the hebrew people dominated the region and are on record under various languages and historical sources as
living there, being conquered, and being expelled multiple times. Why is that?
Because the Hebrews that dominated the region are long dead and gone and haven't had a claim on the land for centuries.
How can it be relevant in any sane argument?
It'd be like starting a massacre of US women and children just to give the land back to the Native Indians, except 3 times more topical and more
likely to be justified using your rational, as this at least took place within the last 500 years.
How can you support genocide of one people to satisfy the greed of the ancestors of another people?? The only people alive today that have any claim
to this area are the ones you're trying to kill....
edit on 19-11-2012 by Beavers because: (no reason given)