posted on Nov, 3 2012 @ 07:16 AM
reply to post by PurpleDog UK
That is a very complicated question, there is certainly evidence that many of the abusers were themselves victim of past abuse. In the light of
recent events the term has been used quite frequently, and often incorrectly let me explain what I mean.
If a human being has been through puberty they are know longer physically a child, so technically if the person that was abused is below the age of
consent the abuser is not a pedophile but sex offender, and is guilty of statutory rape.
If a person of the same sex sexually abuses a person that has been through puberty but is under the age of consent , the abuser is a predatory
homosexual, and is also guilty of statutory rape.
If a person a abuses another person that has not been through puberty then, and only then can they termed a pedophile.
Pedophile's by definition carry out sexual offences against the pre-pubescant.