posted on Oct, 5 2012 @ 02:40 PM
Although we do know about 10% of Americans might not have the ID necessary to vote, we don't know how many won't vote specifically because of this
extra burden, how many will be motivated to get an ID or how many will resort to absentee ballots, which do not require ID.
Is that sufficient? You asked me to find evidence to support your stance are you dense.
Even though I already answered you sufficiently. Let me point out no one has proven a case of voter fraud in PA that would justify this law therefore
the judge ruled correctly.
The bait was the Acorn reference you made even though the two are not the same and the article points that out and most people already know that.
Would you like to post proof of PA voter fraud because I can’t find any?