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A historian of early Christianity at Harvard Divinity School has identified a scrap of papyrus that she says was written in Coptic in the fourth century and contains a phrase never seen in any piece of scripture: "Jesus said to them, 'My wife …'"
The faded papyrus fragment is smaller than a business card, with eight lines on one side, in black ink legible under a magnifying glass. Just below the line about Jesus having a wife, the papyrus includes a second provocative clause that purportedly says, “she will be able to be my disciple.”
Not if he was smart...
Originally posted by TedHodgson
reply to post by Aloysius the Gaul
Was Jesus married?
Yes, Yes i was.
Originally posted by Aloysius the Gaul
It's not as if Madeleine christianity is going to actualy replace Paulicine christianity any time soon of course, but even as an atheist I find the early history a fascinating topic just for hte history itself.
www.huffingtonpost.com... d%3D207309
"The Gospel Of Jesus' Wife," New Early Christian Text, Indicates Jesus May Have Been Married
Originally posted by smyleegrl
Jesus was considered a good Jewish man...that kinda indicates he would have married.
It freaks us out bc the thought of Jesus having marital relations is so.....ewww. But why should that be the case? Because we've been conditioned to believe that sex is somehow dirty and wrong.
I bet Jesus had a wife, and probably a child or two.
Originally posted by adjensen
Originally posted by Aloysius the Gaul
It's not as if Madeleine christianity is going to actualy replace Paulicine christianity any time soon of course, but even as an atheist I find the early history a fascinating topic just for hte history itself.
"Madeleine christianity"? What the heck is that?
Okay, let's put this into context. This is a scrap of papyrus smaller than a business card. It has eight lines of writing on one side and three words on the other. The scrap is missing the text which came after "my wife", which means it could have said anything (like "my wife, Mary" or "my wife, the church".) It is a Fourth Century document, written in Coptic, which immediately calls to mind Nag Hammadi and the Gnostic texts within, which this would fit with, by date, language and content.
In other words, while possibly interesting, this doesn't really mean anything, as regards new knowledge of Christ. It certainly doesn't mean that he was married... at best, it might mean that some people, centuries after his death, thought that he was married, just as they so speculate today.
Originally posted by Tardacus
I always assumed that he would have had to been married.
How can he judge us for adultery if he was never married and never tempted by adultery?
It`s easy to be perfect if you are never faced with the temptation to do wrong.
he wouldn`t be qualified to pass judgement on us if he didn`t face all the temptations we face and not succumb to them.
Originally posted by adjensen
reply to post by new_here
Reasonably, Christ is represented in the Bible as being free from sin. He was the only one who, in material form, was able to say "no" to everything that separates us from God (which is all sin is, that which separates us from God.)
So, given the testimony of the historical evidence, and the logic of what we might expect Christ to behave like, it isn't unreasonable to assume that he did not have sex.
Originally posted by new_here
Sex is not a sin within the context of marriage.