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Actually, that is not the case.
Christianity is full of prophecies that are yet to unfurl. Even today....Christians are still waiting for 2000 year old prophecies to be fulfilled. So there no reason to think that everything was already said and done.
Its not just about Jesus....
Jews disagree on a number of things that are central to Christianity.
Jews,like muslims.... dont believe in the christian concept of "original sin".
Jews,like muslims.... dont believe in the christian concept of "trinity".
In fact, the jews dont even have a favorable view of Jesus and his mother Mary (to put it mildly).
Jesus is incompatible with Judaism....and yet Jews are favored by many Christians as the chosen people.
However, Jesus is revered by Muslims as the messiah...and yet, christian fundamentalists demonize Islam.
Strange.
christians consider it further revelation of the nature of god that was only previously hinted at or addressed obliquely.
Originally posted by sk0rpi0n
reply to post by nenothtu
We have established the literal translation of "masih". Now we must establish what the word means within the Islamic context.
To put things in perspective... many christians ignorantly assume that the mahdi is the messiah, in Islam.
Then they claim that Islam is opposed to Jesus christ because it calls someone else the messiah. They don't stop to ask questions about what the word "messiah" means in Islamic context... but assume that it means the same thing, except that somebody other than Jesus is the messiah in Islam.
I've noticed that its always the christians who know that Jesus is messiah in Islam who they try and work their way around the problem by raising questions on the meaning of the word in Islam.
The word means whatever it meant in the christian context as well....because Islam was a continuation of the same religion of the biblical prophets and Jesus.
Originally posted by sk0rpi0n
When we say "the world"... are we adding the article "the" to disinguish this particular world from "a" world?
We both understand what world is being referred to, don't we.
Similarly with regard to the messiah, its understood by both christians and muslims that there is only one messiah. "The" is not added to distinguish him from other messiahs.
In english, when christians refer to Jesus, they say "the messiah". Its either because
a)The word "the" is required for proper sentence construction....
example - "Who is messiah?" sounds incorrect, though the meaning of the question is understood. But Who is the messiah? is a grammatically correct way of asking the same question.
b)Its a reiteration of the belief in just one messiah.
Though, its best that you ask a christian on this matter.
Similarly, muslims consider their faith to also be a continuation of a message that was previously "hinted at".
But however, Christians look at muslims the same way jews look at christians.... as a people who are adding to a scripture that they consider their own.
No, it does not. Ask your imam - don't take my word for it.
The very Islamic denial of the crucifixion and resurrection of Christ demonstrates that they do not mean the same thing in both religions.
Muslims should make up their minds whether Islam is a continuation of Christianity, or predates Christianity. If it is a continuation, then they need to re-examine their beliefs, and incorporate the Christian beliefs as well.
Originally posted by sk0rpi0n
reply to post by nenothtu
No, the Christian concept of a messiah is not necessarily God or a god, it is "annointed king" at it's most basic conception. One must ask himself, then, what it is the Christians think the Messiah is the king of, and what the Muslims think the Messiah is the king of.
Good point.... Now, I'd like to hear it from a christian that Jesus is not God....
Originally posted by nenothtu
No, it does not. Ask your imam - don't take my word for it. The very Islamic denial of the crucifixion and resurrection of Christ demonstrates that they do not mean the same thing in both religions.
Originally posted by nenothtu
Muslims should make up their minds whether Islam is a continuation of Christianity, or predates Christianity. If it is a continuation, then they need to re-examine their beliefs, and incorporate the Christian beliefs as well. There is no continuation when there is a clear break.
Was Abraham a Muslim? If he was, how can Islam be a "continuation" of a religion that arose AFTER the days of Abraham?
A single messiah is not the Christian understanding of it. For example, David was a messiah - an anointed king - in his case, of Israel.
Yes, you are correct, when Christians say "the messiah" in English, they are referring to Jesus, but when they say "a messiah", they are not.
Originally posted by sk0rpi0n
reply to post by nenothtu
No, it does not. Ask your imam - don't take my word for it.
Chronologically, what we know as Islam came after christianity... AND Islam acknowledges the prophets of the OT and Jesus...so it is a continuation of the same Abrahamic religion.
Conceptually, Islam teaches the same monotheism that we read of in the bible.
The religion of the biblical prophets and Jesus contained the understanding that there is one God who runs the universe.
The very Islamic denial of the crucifixion and resurrection of Christ demonstrates that they do not mean the same thing in both religions.
Theres no real connection between Jesus messiahship and his crucifixion.
Christian theology around the crucifixion has only reduced the messiah to a sacrificial animal. So anybody living a life of decadence and sin could simply, at any time.... acknowledge that an innocent man died for his sins and be "saved".
This is not how the bible defines the messiahs role.
Muslims should make up their minds whether Islam is a continuation of Christianity, or predates Christianity. If it is a continuation, then they need to re-examine their beliefs, and incorporate the Christian beliefs as well.
Hang on... I said that Islam is a continuation of the same religion of the biblical prophets and Jesus. ...
Its not the same as saying Islam is a continuation of Christianity.
Originally posted by babloyi
reply to post by nenothtu
Originally posted by nenothtu
No, it does not. Ask your imam - don't take my word for it. The very Islamic denial of the crucifixion and resurrection of Christ demonstrates that they do not mean the same thing in both religions.
More semantic than anything else (but I guess that doesn't matter, this discussion seems to have gone into semantics already), and I certainly don't think there is anything backing it other than personal observation, but I'd say that the images of sacrificial lamb, and blood sacrifice washing away sin is what comes to mind when talking about "Christ" or "the Christ", however, when talking about "the Messiah", Christians have similar images to Jews and Muslims- an end-times figure that will basically physically save the world, and rule it. In this sense, definitely, Islam and Christianity share the understanding of the Messiah (as do Jews).
se·man·tics [si-man-tiks]
noun (used with a singular verb)
1.Linguistics.
a.the study of meaning.
b.the study of linguistic development by classifying and examining changes in meaning and form.
2.Also called significs. the branch of semiotics dealing with the relations between signs and what they denote.
3.the meaning, or an interpretation of the meaning, of a word, sign, sentence, etc.: Let's not argue about semantics.
4.general semantics.
Origin:
1895–1900; see semantic, -ics
Originally posted by nenothtu
Muslims should make up their minds whether Islam is a continuation of Christianity, or predates Christianity. If it is a continuation, then they need to re-examine their beliefs, and incorporate the Christian beliefs as well. There is no continuation when there is a clear break.
I wouldn't think it is all that incomprehensible. "Islam" basically means submission to the will of God. Even Christians and Jews would agree this applies to all the prophets. The generally understood chronology for the current belief system known as "Islam" would be that certain revelations were revealed to certain people at certain times. Some of those got corrupted, some of them were only valid for that specific time. Finally, a final revelation was revealed that applied to all of the world for all of time.
Originally posted by nenothtu
Why then did Uthman feel a need to destroy all but one version of the Qur'an in his day?
How did Uthman decide which was the "right" version?
In a related question, why do the Hadiths refer to passages that cannot be found in a modern Qur'an?
How did Uthman decide which was the "right" moon version?
In a related question, why do the Hadiths refer to passages that cannot be found in a modern moon?
Where does the "original" copy of the moon reside for comparisons to be made?