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BILLIONS of Christians around the world say otherwise.
Originally posted by Jameela
What Muslims have asked for is the ability to settle our civil matters in like manner, so that those who are Muslim have the right to follow our own religious laws in matters not criminal. This is something that in the United States as well as other countries Jews are allowed the right to do. Why is it so difficult to extend the same consideration to practicing Muslims in your country?
Originally posted by beezzer
Originally posted by Jameela
What Muslims have asked for is the ability to settle our civil matters in like manner, so that those who are Muslim have the right to follow our own religious laws in matters not criminal. This is something that in the United States as well as other countries Jews are allowed the right to do. Why is it so difficult to extend the same consideration to practicing Muslims in your country?
So one one hand you say Islam is not being forced onto the west, then you're justifying the introduction of Sharia onto the west.
The issue with extending the same consideration is that Islam doesn't differentiate between civil and criiminal. And it's imposition is in direct conflict with the US Constitution.
Originally posted by Jameela
We do not care what YOU do.... we are not trying to force sharia law on you... if the Jews can try their own civil matters in Rabbinical courts in your country why can't Muslims have courts for the same?
Double standards much?edit on 6-5-2012 by Jameela because: (no reason given)
Why is it so difficult to extend the same consideration to practicing Muslims in your country?
Originally posted by BellaSabre
reply to post by Jameela
Why is it so difficult to extend the same consideration to practicing Muslims in your country?
Hi. When there are matters of divorce or behaviors/conflicts that fall within the jurisdiction of the Jewish faith, they have "court".
However, if a felony is committed, then it comes to the attention of the law, and would be held in a court of law.
Marital rape, for example, is a felony. It is very illegal in the U.S. So, in the event there was domestic violence involved, sexual assault or child abuse, it would fall into a regular courtroom. If a man should strike his wife, even a bit, just to "punish" her as though she were a child, it is still considered assault, and consequently domestic violence, which can be a felony or a misdemeanor depending on the severity, and criminal charges are brought. On ALL people.
So, with Americans all being "treated equally" (yeah, I know ) these charges would fall within a court of criminal law.
Just so you'll know: When reading statistics of domestic violence, child abuse, and sexual assault involving American Jewish familiies, it is almost non-existent.
Originally posted by BellaSabre
reply to post by Jameela
Some Christian churches have councils of elders, and such, and deal with couples in more of a "counseling" role, which, yes, can sometimes be disciplinary.
But to make a legal proceeding; "a court", in my mind, would be inappropriate.
Originally posted by Jameela
Then you should remove the Jewish right to have their own courts. Because to say Jews have the rights we are asking for but Muslims are not allowed is religious discrimination against Muslims.
Originally posted by beezzer
Originally posted by Jameela
Then you should remove the Jewish right to have their own courts. Because to say Jews have the rights we are asking for but Muslims are not allowed is religious discrimination against Muslims.
False.
Because jewish laws aren't in conflict with the US Constitution.
Originally posted by beezzer
Originally posted by Jameela
Then you should remove the Jewish right to have their own courts. Because to say Jews have the rights we are asking for but Muslims are not allowed is religious discrimination against Muslims.
False.
Because jewish laws aren't in conflict with the US Constitution.
Originally posted by Jameela
Please show me ANY law pertaining to marriage and divorce in Islam that is in contradiction to the United States Constitution...
do not speak without proof...
Also, Please find me any law in Islam pertaining to contractual agreements in business that are in any way contradictory to the United States Constitution.
I will give you a hint... you will never be able to find even one!
Originally posted by Jameela
Originally posted by beezzer
Originally posted by Jameela
Then you should remove the Jewish right to have their own courts. Because to say Jews have the rights we are asking for but Muslims are not allowed is religious discrimination against Muslims.
False.
Because jewish laws aren't in conflict with the US Constitution.
Please show me ANY law pertaining to marriage and divorce in Islam that is in contradiction to the United States Constitution...
do not speak without proof...
Also, Please find me any law in Islam pertaining to contractual agreements in business that are in any way contradictory to the United States Constitution.
I will give you a hint... you will never be able to find even one!
Originally posted by jimmyx
Originally posted by Jameela
Originally posted by beezzer
Originally posted by Jameela
Then you should remove the Jewish right to have their own courts. Because to say Jews have the rights we are asking for but Muslims are not allowed is religious discrimination against Muslims.
False.
Because jewish laws aren't in conflict with the US Constitution.
Please show me ANY law pertaining to marriage and divorce in Islam that is in contradiction to the United States Constitution...
do not speak without proof...
Also, Please find me any law in Islam pertaining to contractual agreements in business that are in any way contradictory to the United States Constitution.
I will give you a hint... you will never be able to find even one!
does a woman have the right under islam, to sue for child and spousal support from her husband in the case of divorce?
I do not see this in any way contradictory to the Constitution of the United States.