Originally posted by wearewatchingyouman
reply to post by Akragon

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Just out of curiousity: While it's true Jesus never claimed to be God specifically he never denied it, and then there is John 10:28, 29-

Thomas said to him, "My Lord and my God!" Then Jesus told him, "Because you have seen me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed."

How do you interpret this verse?

Originally posted by Deetermined
reply to post by Akragon

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So, Akragon, why do we see so much turmoil going on in Israel? Why do we continually see the Jews being persecuted? Do you think it's because none of them follow the way of life that Jesus taught? We can probably say that about most nations. Why is Israel the one that everyone is turning it's back on? Could it be because it is written in the Bible? If that's the case, why did God choose them to the ones to set the example by? The Bible says that the persecution of the Jews is because they turned their back on Jesus. What does that mean to you?

Do you think the persecution is only because the Jews didn't stop the Romans from killing Jesus? Why didn't God pick the Romans to be the persecuted ones?

15) Since the sinner cannot fulfill the law and satisfy God, it follows that only God can do this. This is simple logic. If we are unable to fulfill the Law, then we will be punished by it. But, since God desires us to be saved, the Law must be satisfied. Since we cannot keep the Law and it must be satisfied, then the only one capable of keeping the Law must keep the Law: God. Jesus is God in flesh. John 1:1,14, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.... 14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth." Col. 2:9, "For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form."

Jesus was also a man under the Law. 1 Tim. 2:5, "For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus." Gal. 4:4-5, "But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law, 5) in order that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons." Jesus became sin for us and bore our sins in His body on the cross, thus fulfilling the Law. 2 Cor. 5:21, "He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." 1 Peter 2:24, "and He Himself bore our sins in His body on the cross, that we might die to sin and live to righteousness; for by His wounds you were healed." Rom. 8:3-4, "For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh, 4) so that the requirement of the Law might be fulfilled in us, who do not walk according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit."

Since the sinner cannot fulfill the law and satisfy God, it follows that only God can do this. This is simple logic. If we are unable to fulfill the Law, then we will be punished by it. But, since God desires us to be saved, the Law must be satisfied. Since we cannot keep the Law and it must be satisfied, then the only one capable of keeping the Law must keep the Law: God. Jesus is God in flesh.

2. God wants all in Israel and on Earth to know what will help trigger this fierce and terrible anger: Gaza!! He warns, 'Gaza will be forsaken'... her inhabitants (the children of Israel) 'uprooted' and 'driven out' . . . "For Gaza shall be forsaken, And Ashkelon desolate; They shall drive out Ashdod at noonday, And Ekron shall be uprooted. Woe to the inhabitants of the seacoast, The nation of the Cherethites! The word of the Lord is against you, O Canaan, land of the Philistines (Palestinians): "I [God] will destroy you So there shall be no inhabitant." (All 'Palestinians' and their allies should take note ...)

Originally posted by lonewolf19792000

Originally posted by icepack
reply to post by lonewolf19792000

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Jesus is Yahweh

i assume yahweh is god. but on judgement day jesus will sit to the right of god.
or are god and yahweh different deities ?

Your answer lies in Isaiah 59 as to how Jesus sits at the right hand of the Father, not "to the right of God". There is only one God, and if you read Acts, it's Jesus sitting on the white throne of Judgement.

This is not logical... God needed to kill himself?

Originally posted by wearewatchingyouman
reply to post by Deetermined

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I'm well aware of who the Philistines were. I asked how you claim Palestinians=Philistines. There have been many peoples who have lived in the land of Canaan. How do you prove direct lineage between Philistines and Palestinians as you claim in your "Prophecy"?

Originally posted by Deetermined
reply to post by SwissMarked

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It sounds like you could use a thorough reading of this thread.

www.abovetopsecret.com...