Originally posted by HumansEh
Originally posted by s12345
I was watching something on the tv about Shakespeare; and on it was Shakespeare done as a rap, his plays done in a jamaican accent. As I very much doubt that Shakespeare would have wanted his work done like this; based upon the time he lived in. Should therefore great works be protected from modern day people wanting to up their reputation by playing and/or playing with great works? A producer or director doing it straight may not stick out as much as one doing their version, and therefore be better for their career.Should the dead like Shakespeare be protected from the less talented living? My opinion is they can do what they want with their works but should leave others alone.
The language of Shakespeare may belong to another age but the stories are universal. Characters react to circumstances much the same way as they would today. I think that whatever gets somebody to notice his plays in whatever form is only a good thing. As for using a Jamaican accent to recite his words many scholars agree that in Elizabethan England pronunciation of English was different to today. No-one can be 100% certain but many experts believe that the Elizabethan English accent was similar to modern American pronunciation and would have been quite familiar to listeners today.
I thought that Baz Luhrmann's interpretation of Romeo and Juliet was a triumph while keeping the original play intact but modernising the setting.
Originally posted by LifeInDeath
Originally posted by bhornbuckle75
reply to post by s12345
It's not as if someone took the painting of the Mona Lisa, and cut it up, and made a collage out of it! Shakespeare's work is well into the public domain. Heck making a spin on Shakespeare's work is one of the most common things done in the film industry!
Let's not forget that Shakespeare, himself, very often drew his stories from earlier sources and stories. Romeo and Juliet comes from the story of Pyramus and Thisbe from Roman mythology, which Ovid told a version of (and Ovid was Shakespeare's favorite writer).
King Lear comes from actual ancient English history from the period soon after Roman rule there collapsed.
There are many other examples from Shakespeare's plays, in fact I think most of his works come from either history or are retellings of prior stories. If he did it with Ovid, why can't others try doing it with him?