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The most high and Lord are likely the same person referred to by Moses.
The other day, I prepared a chicken to eat. When it was done, I allotted myself the drumsticks
When the Most High gave the nations their inheritance, when he divided all mankind, he set up boundaries for the peoples according to the number of the sons of Israel.
For the LORD’s portion is his people, Jacob his allotted inheritance.
-Deuteronomy 32:8-9
Hang on, now!!!!!
"For the LORD’s portion is his people, Jacob his allotted inheritance."
If the LORD's portion is his people, and Jacob his "allotted" inheritance... then... who allotted this to the LORD?
Originally posted by sk0rpi0n
reply to post by SwissMarked
Read the biblical quote again.
The LORD seems to be "inheriting" something.
When you inherit something... its usually from someone higher than you.... or you are given something that you did not own before.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by sk0rpi0n
Anytime you read "LORD" in all caps in the OT, the Hebrew text says YHWH.
You can't get any higher on the totem pole than Him.
Originally posted by vaelamin
reply to post by CaptainNemo
AHA. I knew it. I knew there had to be a reason every other region had there own gods to believe in. Who do you think the Lord gave Rome to? Satan maybe? I heard Rome didn't really have a deity until they conquered the Greek's.
Since many critical scholars believe that the laws banning the worship of other gods really do go back to Moses, but that the denial of the existence of other gods does not, they conclude that Moses only taught monolatry, not monotheism. And since historical books such as Judges and Kings state that the Israelites continued to worship other gods throughout their history, these scholars conclude that even the requirement of monolatry was not widely accepted in Israel until shortly before the Babylonian exile, or even later. The doctrine of monotheism is thought by these scholars to have originated long after Moses, perhaps as late as the seventh century B.C.E. when it was emphasized by Deuteronomy and the prophets.
The referent of the number seventy, the "sons of Israel" (in MT), initially seemed understandable enough, for both Gen 46:27 and Exo. 1:5 state that 70 members of Jacob's family went down to Egypt in the days of Joseph.9 Little thought was given, however, to the logic of the correlation: How is it that the number of the pagan nations was determined in relation to an entity (Israel) or individuals (Jacob and his household) that did not yet exist? Even if one contends that the correlation was in the mind of God prior to Israel's existence and only recorded much later, what possible point would there be behind connecting the pagan Gentile nations numerically with the children of promise? On the other hand, what could possibly be meant by the textual option that created a correspondence between the number of the nations in Genesis 10-11 and heavenly beings?
Originally posted by sk0rpi0n
reply to post by HeFrippedMeOff
The other day, I prepared a chicken to eat. When it was done, I allotted myself the drumsticks
Cute.
Would you also say you "inherited" the drumsticks as well?
If I tell you I "inherited" a mansion, would you ask me if I owned it before I "inherited" it?
Originally posted by babloyi
reply to post by CaptainNemo
The text does very clearly say "Sons of Israel"
As you can see from the Concordance for Deut 32:8, it says "ben israel".