Originally posted by TheBlackManIsGod7
reply to post by pcrobotwolf

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So it's upon me to provide the sources for what I already know is a fact? I only provide proof for what I am attempting to prove. Yet I need not attempt to prove becasue I seek not to persuade anyone into my way of thinking. If you had an interest to explore any of what I've previously stated in depth, then you would have done some googling, search youtube for videos, wikipedia or any other internet souce. If you actually read search for books relating to the topics. Anything. But using me not providing sources as an argument to dispute what I say is false, and only give emotional opinions to do so doesn't prove me wrong or right.

Also you'd be correct in your statement "blacks score lower on the iq test than any other group." This is a fact according to statistics, you must've looked that one up lol. Yet the test are biased and are designed for whites to score high, in which they do outside of the asians and for perople of color, prodominately blacks to score lower. Also if you know white history atleast, you know that Hitler Germany created the iq test as a method and justification to force sterilize most of the jews. Just as today it's used as a way to misdiagnose black children, prodominately males, with adhd, add, ocd, etc. etc. for example. This leads to pruscribing drugs such as ridalin, which is kiddy crack. It makes the children docile, slow and pretty much incable of learning. Misdiagnosing "of behavior issues or learning disabilities" along with poor education in public schools all leads to the bigger problem. But this is also a construct of society and a strategic design and Im sure you know nothing about it and need proof as well. That's fine as well. Peace.

The first large scale mental test may have been the imperial examination system in China. Modern mental testing began in France in the nineteenth century. It contributed to separating mental retardation from mental illness and reducing the neglect, torture, and ridicule heaped on both groups

French psychologist Alfred Binet, together with psychologists Victor Henri and Théodore Simon, after about 15 years of development, published the Binet-Simon test in 1905 which focused on verbal abilities. It was intended to identify mental retardation in school children.[7] The score on the Binet-Simon scale would reveal the child's mental age. For example, a 6 year-old child who passed all the tasks usually passed by 6 year-olds—but nothing beyond—would have a mental age that exactly matched his chronological age, 6.0. (Fancher, 1985). In Binet's view there were limitations with the scale and he stressed what he saw as the remarkable diversity of intelligence and the subsequent need to study it using qualitative, as opposed to quantitative, measures (White, 2000). American psychologist Henry H. Goddard published a translation of it in 1910. The eugenics movement in the USA seized on it as a means to give them credibility in diagnosing mental retardation, and thousands of American women, most of them poor African-Americans, were forcibly sterilized based on their scores on IQ tests, often without their consent or knowledge.[9] American psychologist Lewis Terman at Stanford University revised the Binet-Simon scale which resulted in the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales (1916). It became the most popular test in the United States for decades

But this is also a construct of society and a strategic design and Im sure you know nothing about it and need proof as well. That's fine as well. Peace

Originally posted by ThirdEyeofHorus
reply to post by butcherguy

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Also there are genetic markers that delineate some differences. Viva la difference!

Upon the decline of Roman imperial power, Germanic tribes from the east took over vast lands once ruled from Rome.

Originally posted by TheBlackManIsGod7
reply to post by paganini

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The question is "are whites discriminated agianst more that blacks." Part of my response is no, how can whites be more discriminated in a society controlled by whites. Your response was "well there are a select few that control it." That doesn't discredit the fact and my statement that it is still dominated by europeans.

Originally posted by ThirdEyeofHorus
reply to post by paganini

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Again, Paggi, I was commenting on the mixing of complexions, nothing more.

Originally posted by ThirdEyeofHorusUpon the decline of Roman imperial power, Germanic tribes from the east took over vast lands once ruled from Rome.


What does "take over vast lands" mean to you? Does it mean that every person suddenly becomes blonde? No, but it sure means that a lot did.

Originally posted by ThirdEyeofHorus And when the moors came, darker hair and darker eyes came with it..

It's a fundamental challenge in a democracy with an all-volunteer force: recruits may be drawn from all segments of society, but elite military units -- and none is more elite these days than the SEALs, following their dispatch of Osama bin Laden last May -- tend to draw from small pools of talent. For the SEALs, that includes athletic young men who are smart and good in the water. For whatever reason, that has led to an overwhelmingly white SEAL force.

The Navy isn't seeking only black SEALs: "Challenges for minority recruitment also exist in the Hispanic, Asian Pacific Islander (API), Native American, and Arab American populations among others," the announcement notes.

Time

The entire world was black and is black (all people of color).

Taught them how to bathe, taught them language, taught them mathematics, science, art, music, how to cook food, etc. etc.This is a fact of history.

Moor (noun): a Muslim of the mixed Berber and Arab people inhabiting NW Africa.

.) They used in to sterilize women, "primarily black women in America" as the article states. Eugenics is a part of population control and if you can force sterilize a mass of people isn't this part of population control