reply to post by pexx421
First,it is very good that you choose to learn things and invest the time. Knowing history is pretty important in order to feel the zeitgeist,so to
Here is what i can add to the thread:
From what I am reading, it seems that certain groups, France, Russia, and some others were busy building up forces upon germany's borders since the
end of WWI. While many pieces of Germany were parceled off after WWI, and the german citizens there were being oppressed by their new rulers, some of
the western powers were waiting hungrily for the chance to snag more.
France had no intention to take any land from Germany after WW1. Actually France was so shellshocked by that war that its public was very
anti-military and French (France was considered superpower,to remind you) short and non convincing performance in WW2 is the good indicator of
Independent Russia did not exist at the period, it was Soviet Union - international Communist state by definition. There was no border between Germany
and Soviet Union so no direct invasion threat in the beginning of Nazi rule, Hitler and Stalin created that border by cutting up Poland in 1939. After
that Soviet Union indeed increased its military presence on Western borders so Hitler really had no choice. But he placed Germany in this mud himself
,nobody forced him to attack Poland and engage in war with Britain and France plus getting agressive Soviet Union as a direct neighbour.
Also, well prior to any german oppression or massacres of jews, many newspapers from around the world call on the jews to unite in a war upon germany,
cutting them off economically, and even further condemning the germans to poverty in a time that they were sorely burdened by the reparations demanded
From what i know there was 1 newpspaper article titled "Judea declares war on Germany" describing Jewish boycotts on German products. It was written
by non-Jewish journalist in non-Jewish newspaper and is the responsibility of the author only. Lots of Jewish organisations worldwide declared boycott
on Germany,true. But there is a difference in declaring boycott and declaring war. Also,as you stated yourself - there were Jewish organisations
heavily trading with Germany (Haavara agreement) so it was not a full boycott anyway.
Example for clarification:
Lots of Arab organisations declared boycott on Israeli products. Is it war and Israel should send nukes in all directions? Or it isn't war only
because some attention-seeking non-Arab journalist did not write flashy "Arabs declare war on Israel" title?
On top of this, from what I am reading, the germans at the time were afraid of the unequal representation the jewish groups maintained in many
governments, fearing the power displayed by them in the Bolshevik revolution, as well as the attempts to spread Bolshevism to other nations. They were
also very angry with the jewish germans for their role in organizing the naval revolt near the end of WWI, which they blame for them losing the war.
Some Germans felt threatened by Jews in power positions, some were threatened by lots of Jews among German Communists, some blamed Jews in defeat in
This is all true. Nethertheless, the developments clearly showed that German Jews did not have such powers because Hitler took control and easily took
lots of Jewish civil rights. If Jews controled Germany it would not have happened.
German Communists never gained strong support in Germany and all attempts at violent revolutions (in one attempt Hitler and his party joined the
Communists against the government. Funny world,isn't it?) failed.
WW2 without German Jews "stabbing the Germany at the back" ended even worse for Germany then the WW1 did.
Hope it helps.
Just please remeber, existence of official story "junk" does not mean that all non-official history isn't crap.
edit on 6-3-2012 by
ZeroKnowledge because: (no reason given)