Originally posted by Christosterone
Atlantis to me seems fairly obvious as to what Plato may have been referring to.
Lets look at Plato's description:
Firstly, he described it as being located on a CONTINENT to the west of the Straits of Gibraltar (pillars of Hercules)...
There are 2 things we can take from this....
1) A continent once located in the Atlantic disappeared because Poseidon got mad
2) Plato is referring to an existing, non-disappearing continent(s) lying west of Spain....
Lets look at a map and see if there are any unknown(at the time of Plato) continents west of Spain...
No. Plato (a Greek) never said anything about the Strait of Gibraltor nor Spain. The British claimed that in their botched translation of the Greek
language in the 1800s. Prior to the 1800s, Greeks had always believed that their sunken island was in the Aegean Sea. Because Plato maintained that
the sunken island lay "beyond the Pillars of Heracles" and those Pillars used to be on the island of Rhodes, the entry way to the Aegean Sea.
Then Brits in the 1800s wanted to steal the story. They altered the Greek and manipulated story places to claim that the sunken island was in the
Atlantic. Technically, in the Greek version, the sunken island is called
Atlas. Atlas was the son of Poseidon. Atlas was the name of the sunken
island in the Greek language. But the British in the 1800s altered the Greek and called the island "Atlantis", rather than Atlas.
Greeks who speak Greek daily who pick up a copy of Plato never look for their sunken island in the Atlantic Ocean. And the original story was written
in their language. Don't you find it odd that only Brits and Americans reading a mistranslation look for this sunken island in the Atlantic? Yet,
none of the Greeks look in the Atlantic when reading Greek. Plato was Greek, not British the last time I checked. Did it ever occur to anyone that the
reason no one can find a sunken island in the Atlantic is because the British botched and altered the translation? After all, Greeks reading Plato in
Greek look in the Aegean and never the Atlantic.
And besides the rest of Plato's story talks about how the island of Atlas founded the city of Athens (the capitol of Greece) but that the island
group became corrupt. Then Athens (the capitol of Greece) went to war with the island of Atlas (that sunk).
Has anyone ever heard of a Greek war between Athens and the Mayans? No. And why? Because Plato's story has nothing to do with the Mayans. The whole
notion of claiming that Mayans founded the capitol of Greece-- the great city of Athina is extremely rude and insulting. Yet Plato claims the sunken
island of Atlas did found Athina. And if the island became corrupt, and Athens went to war, then don't you think that if the island had anything to
do with the Mayans, there'd be some record in Greece and among Mayans of this alleged Greek-Mayan war that Plato referred to. There isn't a record
of it because Plato's story of a sunken island had nothing to do with the Atlantic Ocean at all.
Besides, the entire notion that this sunken island being the Mayans has no viable evidence. If that were true then civilization would have originated
in the Americas and come to Europe and Europeans would have been growing plants and crops of American origin. That NEVER happened. Europeans grew
plants and crops that are primarily Aegean in origin. Even Egypt was growing Aegean plants, such as Aegilopoides einkorn wheat from the Aegean was a
crop grown in Alexandria. If Mayans had started civilization, then Europe would have been growing potatoes, tomatoes and corn in Ancient Greece. That
never happened. Corn, potatoes and tomatoes were introduced into Europe after Columbus or at least tomatoes of the red variety. (Europe used to grow
purple plum tomatoes which grow wild in high altitudes all over Europe. The red variety come from America. Europe used to eat the parsnip until
potatoes were introduced after Columbus).
So since the crops go from Aegean to Mediterranean to Atlantic, there's no way that Mayans started civilization in Europe.