Pi - Phi^2 = cubit | mathematical secrets of giza, page 3
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reply posted on 20-12-2011 @ 04:46 AM by tgidkp
reply to post by TheRedneck



I would like to point something out here that might clear up a few of these circular arguments. WRT speed of light (c) as a discrete value in units of meters/second: this number is derived from a geometrical RELATIONSHIP of the tangent in an Lorentz function.

so, in other words, it is far more accurate to represent the light constant as a relationship of geometrical forms than it is to approximate it using a discrete value.

accordingly, the reason that the maths in the meter/cubit comparison are working out properly is because they are both derived from the same geometric relationship.

the cubit and the meter are not related to each other.... they are BOTH related to the geometry.


p.s. great thread, I have found this info very useful.


reply posted on 20-12-2011 @ 05:01 AM by Lee78
reply to post by Harte



You are forgetting something that i feel is very important. Iridium


An alloy of 90% platinum and 10% iridium was used in 1889 to construct the International Prototype Meter and kilogram mass, kept by the International Bureau of Weights and Measures near Paris.[10] The meter bar was replaced as the definition of the fundamental unit of length in 1960 by a line in the atomic spectrum of krypton,[note 4][64] but the kilogram prototype is still the international standard of mass


Which i believe over the course of time this has all changed and the balance is wrong. Look at the units in measures, weights and sizes etc, theyre all different globally.


reply posted on 20-12-2011 @ 05:28 AM by ChaoticOrder
reply to post by tgidkp



the cubit and the meter are not related to each other.... they are BOTH related to the geometry.
Can you please expand on that concept. I don't see how it could be true, because if the meter were just a bit longer or shorter then a cubit wouldn't be 52.36cm and the connection wouldn't exist. It could pure chance that they used a length which has a pi/phi based relationship to the meter, but the probability of that is fairly slim imo.



reply posted on 20-12-2011 @ 07:13 AM by TheRedneck
reply to post by tgidkp

The speed of light, c, is a measured value. The reason it is presumed to be a constant is that years of experimentation have proved it to be constant regardless of other movement. In order for it to be a derived value, there must be an understanding of its cause; we have no such understanding of why c is a constant - it simply is.

And none of that addresses the problem with using dimensionless rations to obtain a dimensioned value.

I highly doubt the dual-derivation theory you propose behind the meter - cubit relationship. If, as proposed, a cubit is π/6 meters and a meter is 1/1·10^8 the distance from the equator to the North Pole (approximately 1/4 the circumference of the planet; gravitational/centrifugal eccentricity will contribute to the approximation), then the cubit would have been equal to 2π/3·10^8 the planetary circumference. If we relate it to the diameter of the planet, a cubit would be roughly 2/3·10^8 the average planetary diameter.

Now where did that 2/3 coefficient come from? That makes little sense to me so far as being a useful constant, even if the diameter were a constant (which it is not). Why not make the cubit 1/10^8 of the diameter, or of the radius, or of the circumference... why would anyone select a base unit that has that 2/3 relationship to a known constant?

TheRedneck


reply posted on 20-12-2011 @ 07:29 PM by tgidkp
reply to post by TheRedneck



I may or may not take a moment to truly understand your mathematical reasoning ...

...but where is the 2/3 coming from?


A: from the golden ratio (applied to a circle divided into six parts), of course!

it seems pretty profound, if you ask me.


reply posted on 20-12-2011 @ 10:37 PM by TheRedneck
reply to post by tgidkp

I stand corrected. The actual relationship would be 1/24 instead of 2/3. My apologies and calculations in detail below:

1 cubit = 1/6 the circumference of a 1-meter-diameter circle (assumed for the sake of argument).

The circumference of a 1-meter-diameter circle is π · d = π meters.

Therefore, a cubit is 1/6 · π meters.

A meter is (was originally) defined as 1/10^8 the distance from the equator to the North Pole.

Therefore a cubit is 1/6 · π · 1/10^8 the distance from the equator to the North Pole.

The distance from the equator to the North Pole is 1/4 the circumference of the planet (theoretically).

Therefore a cubit is 1/6 · 1/4 · π · 1/10^8 the circumference of the planet, which equals π/24·10^8.

Assuming a perfect sphere for earth, that would reduce to 1/24·10^8 earth diameters, since an earth diameter would be equal to the circumference of the earth divided by π.

1/24 is even a more confusing coefficient than 2/3.

TheRedneck


reply posted on 21-12-2011 @ 12:20 PM by tgidkp
reply to post by ChaoticOrder



I am sorry that i have been unable to come up with a better description of this geometric relationship. I spent several hours yesterday exploring many concepts (the most interesting of which was using phi and/or pi as the values of the radius), however, nothing clicked.

the foundation of my original argument stems from the concept that, in a spacetime of four dimensions, two concentric bodies (projected as hyperbolae into the space-like minkowski 2D lightcone) will share the same area at a fractal dimension of D=squareroot(2)=1.41 (which is slightly less than half in 3D, or D=1.5). this represents the maximum value of the rate of exchange of information from each body to its conjugate, as required by the second law of thermodynamics (increasing entropy).

fractal dimension

consumedbywanderlust.wordpress.com...

minkowski light-cone

this is my best rationalization for the derivation of the lightspeed constant as the difference of their radii. that same relationship can be expressed in both cubits and meters individually, and presents a possible link to their mysterious consonant relationship through pi.

i am convinced now more than ever that the pyramids are instruments of (at least attempted) spacetime manipulation. were they successful?




p.s. it occurs to me that in order to exceed lightspeed, it would be necessary to alter the fractal dimension very slightly so that the larger radius is somewhat smaller and/or the smaller radius is somewhat larger. I wonder if using a fractal dimension of 1.68 (phi) rather than 1.41 (sqrt 2) would yield an appropriate relationship to accomplish this.... certainly worth exploring.


reply posted on 27-3-2012 @ 02:54 PM by templar knight
Great thread.

Let's not forget the original significance of the metre -
Metric Numbers to remember - in 1790 " the meter was originally specified as 1/10 000 000 of the distance between the Equator and the North Pole". Science has taken this original meaning away, and the fact that the Earth is not spherical.
So it interesting that the Egyptians were using special numbers in their construction and then we at least 2,000 years later are also using special numbers.


reply posted on 27-3-2012 @ 03:04 PM by MasterGemini
reply to post by templar knight



Perhaps you should look at the reason for the naming of 2 of the moons of mars

and their connection to the astronomers of Laputa.



Note that I am referencing Gulliver's Travels written in 1726 when in the real world they were discovered in 1877.

Are we missing something here?

Paz
edit on 27-3-2012 by MasterGemini because: (no reason given)


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