So who exactly are these "Fake Jews" mentioned in Revelations 2:9 and 3:9?

Originally posted by Lemon.Fresh
reply to post by rebeldog

 

What a load on nonsense and ignorance

funny, I was regarding your replies in the same exact manner.

reply to post by Lazarus Short


Apparently he was not, as this was debunked by DNA and the fact that the Judaism has never gone by blood lines.

Keep the hate train rolling! choo-choo!

reply to post by Turkenstein


Oh. I am sorry.

Next time I will not use fact and logic to make a coherent rebuttal against nefarious accusations.

Good day.

reply to post by CasiusIgnoranze


Mormons ?

Those are the only ones I know of.

Originally posted by Lemon.Fresh
reply to post by Turkenstein

 

Oh. I am sorry.

Next time I will not use fact and logic to make a coherent rebuttal against nefarious accusations.

Good day.

Well, don't forget when racism is the underlying evil, facts and logic are generally the first things to go out the window.


"Remember, anger is temporary insanity." ~ Charles Spurgeon

It's obviously the Zionist Jews.. I see a lot of traditional Jew videos telling the truth about it. If you want check out Myron fagan. He talks about it.

reply to post by CasiusIgnoranze

Could this actually be conclusive proof that the Bible is referring to the Zionist Conspiracy to bring forth the New World Order though World War 3 who don't represent the actual innocent Jewish People at all?

I have read that passage and the same thought came to me. We know there is a Zionist conspiracy, and we know these Zion people are the Central Banking Cartel that funds both sides of every war and are war profiteers big time. They have nothing to do with the Hebrew Race, which are good people, to my mind.

reply to post by Noey777


the Kenites is exactly right. excellent job! this is what was taught by the churches of Smyrna & Philadelphia, which happened to be the 2 churches that Jesus went out of his way to commend for their teachings.

here's an excellent link on the subject www.youtube.com...
I have a feeling Noey777 has heard this sermon before.

Originally posted by CasiusIgnoranze
Could this actually be conclusive proof that the Bible is referring to the Zionist Conspiracy to bring forth the New World Order though World War 3 who don't represent the actual innocent Jewish People at all?

Interesting question. I do not think that is the case.

Let me explain: Imagine if you have been preaching against god all your life, and suddenly the being you have protested against suddenly appears. While only a few will acknowledged their lack of faith, others will attempt to deceive god by saying otherwise. Who would fake to be Jewish? Do these passages focus on one particular group? No. Since the Jewish people are the direct brothers and sisters of Jesus, anyone on the outside would attempt to break into that relationship. Christianity was created by an anti-establishment movement, which consisted of Jewish disciples who directly witnessed the life of Jesus. Islam was not created by a Jewish disciple who witnessed the life, death, and resurrection of Jesus. Hens, the disconnect between the three religions. Islam wants to wipe out the direct brothers and sisters of Jesus, and Christianity wants to protect the direct brothers and sisters of Jesus. See how that relationship works? So... Who makes up the fake Jews in those passages? Everyone who pretends they have faith, but they lived a life in protest against god. People who are anti-Jewish and anti-Christian throughout their lives, and then suddenly claim otherwise when God returns (or, when they lay on their death beds).

Get it?

Originally posted by CasiusIgnoranze
Before you read on, please don't get the wrong idea because I do not intend to to cause any offence in this thread. Peace.

Revelation 2:9
King James Version

"I know thy works, and tribulation, and poverty, (but thou art rich) and I know the blasphemy of them which say they are Jews, and are not, but are the synagogue of Satan."

Revelation 3:9
King James Version

"Behold, I will make them of the synagogue of Satan, which say they are Jews, and are not, but do lie; behold, I will make them to come and worship before thy feet, and to know that I have loved thee."

Could this actually be conclusive proof that the Bible is referring to the Zionist Conspiracy to bring forth the New World Order though World War 3 who don't represent the actual innocent Jewish People at all?

Would like your thoughts on this.

Peace.

edit on 31-10-2011 by CasiusIgnoranze because: .

Revelation was a prophecy regarding the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. and yet it is also a prophecy of the still to come future. In order to know the context of which John the Revelator (possibly Apostle John) speaks, you have to read the books starting with Romans through Revelation.

According to Apostle Paul the last days were a referrence to the last days of Jerusalem before it was destroyed in 70 A.D. Some believe that Revelation has already been fulfilled and that we are living during some point of Christ's millenial reign but that doesn't really fit for Jesus to have returned in the first or second century. Ofcourse this cannot be true because there are events in Revelation that hadn't been fulfilled in the first century and that the temple has not been rebuilt and is still being trodden on by the gentiles (namely the muslim whose Dome of the Rock occupies Mt. Moriah) amoung other things such as Christ returning on a cloud on the Mt. Of Olives the way he has left and there is not yet a one world system of government headed by a dictator (anti-christ). There's still alot of the prophecy lef tto be fulfilled.

Specifically Jesus is not actually talking to the jews but to the christians whose religion is heavily based in Judaism except that we have embraced the messiah where as they did not and we teach what Jesus has taught to us through the Apostle Paul (Saul of Tarsus) and Apostle Barnabus. The synagogue of Satan are the fake believers who claim to serve Christ but serve their own selfish wants and desires and do not the works he has commanded them. The first christians were the jews who chose to accept that the savior had come as was promised.

Originally posted by Char-Lee
reply to post by CasiusIgnoranze

 

Very interesting, I have read the Bible through many times but guess I never paid attention to these scriptures.
I have often wondered if the Israel we have now has any relation to the Jews of the scripture. They certainly are involved in a lot of unholy acts, and does bobbing your head at a wall do away with your other actions...isn't this a form of idolatry also?

Indeed it is idolatry. They worship the last remains of the Temple of Herod, the west wall. This is no different than what the catholic do when they kneel and make the sign of the cross in front of the cross or when they kneel and kiss the ring of that abomination that sits on his "papal throne" at the Vatican or when they pray to the statue of Mary in their hail mary's.

Originally posted by lonewolf19792000
Specifically Jesus is not actually talking to the jews but to the christians whose religion is heavily based in Judaism except that we have embraced the messiah where as they did not and we teach what Jesus has taught to us through the Apostle Paul (Saul of Tarsus) and Apostle Barnabus. The synagogue of Satan are the fake believers who claim to serve Christ but serve their own selfish wants and desires and do not the works he has commanded them. The first christians were the jews who chose to accept that the savior had come as was promised.

Better than how I said it.

Lol...

Originally posted by Noey777
....."The serpent did beguile me and I did eat of the fruit. The word beguiled also could have been translated WHOLLY SEDUCED and the word eat could be partake so if we read with the proper translation it would read......the serpent did wholly seduce me and I did partake of Him.

Ah the serpent seed doctrine. However beguiled in Hebrew means to deceive. One would say seduce if you were looking at the Greek. However the OT was written in Hebrew so the beguiled would need to be translated as deceived not seduced.

beguiled:

Hebrew:
nasha'

to beguile, deceive

a) (Niphal) to be beguiled

b) (Hiphil) to beguile, deceive

c) (Qal) utterly (infinitive)

Greek

deleazō

1) to bait, catch by a bait

2) metaph. to beguile by blandishments, allure, entice, deceive

reply to post by lonewolf19792000


Revelation was a prophecy regarding the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. and yet it is also a prophecy of the still to come future. In order to know the context of which John the Revelator (possibly Apostle John) speaks, you have to read the books starting with Romans through Revelation.




The Book of Revelation was not written until around 90AD the temple as you stated was destroyed in 70AD. The book of Revelation is about the last Generation , that being us.

Originally posted by lonewolf19792000
Indeed it is idolatry. They worship the last remains of the Temple of Herod, the west wall. This is no different than what the catholic do when they kneel and make the sign of the cross in front of the cross or when they kneel and kiss the ring of that abomination that sits on his "papal throne" at the Vatican or when they pray to the statue of Mary in their hail mary's.

...and, that is related to God's warning about symbolism.

Correct sir.

Reply to post by lonewolf19792000

They don't worship the wall, silly.

They worship AT the wall.


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reply to post by the4thhorseman


The Hebrew word used in Genesis 3:15 for beguiled is indeed "nasha" it is Strong's concordance word 5377 and it most certainly can be translated seduced. If your source does not teach this then they are hiding something.

To elaborate a tad further for you , the serpents seed is very clear because if Cain was the son of Adam then Cain would have been listed in his genealogy in chapter 5 of Genesis. Cain gets his very own genealogy chart on chapter 4 because he was the son of Satan.

reply to post by CasiusIgnoranze


Romans 2:28-29 tells us who they are:

A man is not a Jew if he is only one outwardly, nor is circumcision merely outward and physical. No, a man is a Jew if he is one inwardly; and circumcision is circumcision of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the written code.

In short, they're people who talk the talk but don't walk the walk.

reply to post by CasiusIgnoranze


Romans 2:28-29 tells us who they are:

A man is not a Jew if he is only one outwardly, nor is circumcision merely outward and physical. No, a man is a Jew if he is one inwardly; and circumcision is circumcision of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the written code.

In short, they're people who talk the talk but don't walk the walk.

Originally posted by Noey777
reply to post by lonewolf19792000

 

Revelation was a prophecy regarding the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. and yet it is also a prophecy of the still to come future. In order to know the context of which John the Revelator (possibly Apostle John) speaks, you have to read the books starting with Romans through Revelation.




The Book of Revelation was not written until around 90AD the temple as you stated was destroyed in 70AD. The book of Revelation is about the last Generation , that being us.

Actually Jerusalem wasn't totally destroyed in 70 A.D. that was mainly the temple when the romans set it ablaze and melted the gold that lined its roof and walls and then dismantled the walls and flooring to get the melted gold. Jerusalem again led a second revolt in 135 A.D. and again the romans killed off a geat many jews and carried the rest off to slavery to europe and this is how the ashkenazi jews came to be. The jews that survived the total destruction of Jerusalem were the christian jews who took heed of Christ's prophecy and the signs he gave regarding the destruction of Jerusalem and they fled into the desert and returned when the romans had left and it was these jewish-christians who became the forefathers of the present day sephardim jews. The ashkenazi jews are the decendants of the jewish slaves the romans carted off to europe and spread as far as the brittish isles.