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Here's my answer.
Originally posted by Angelic Resurrection
The rate of change of direction of the linear vel vectors is the same at both the points.
Why ya'll dont savvy the linear vel of a rotating body is beyond me.
Originally posted by CLPrime
reply to post by Angelic Resurrection
The rates of change of the direction of the velocity vectors are the same, but the magnitudes of the velocity vectors are not. At the equator the magnitude of the instantaneous velocity is a real number, while, at the pole, the magnitude is 0. And, if you'll recall, velocity is proportional to the rate of change of the passage of time (Δt). So, the location with the greater velocity has a larger Δt, which translates into a slower proper time for the clock at the equator.
Originally posted by Arbitrageur
Here's my answer.
Originally posted by Angelic Resurrection
The rate of change of direction of the linear vel vectors is the same at both the points.
Why ya'll dont savvy the linear vel of a rotating body is beyond me.
Put a ball on the end of a string. hold the string over your head and spin the ball around in a circle.
When you want to see what the velocity looks like when it's linear (ignoring the effect of gravity for this illustration), let go of the string.
That's the difference.edit on 27-9-2011 by Arbitrageur because: clarification
Originally posted by CLPrime
reply to post by Angelic Resurrection
A constant rate of change of time is a constant velocity, not acceleration. Otherwise, time would slow to a stop for any reference frame in constant motion, and, to keep time constant, we would have to constantly accelerate.
Originally posted by CLPrime
reply to post by masterp
The OP hasn't had to accept or reject that has the answer, because it hasn't been suggested...because that's not the answer. Did you read, and understand, what Dingle's question is asking?
That's a "no sir".
Originally posted by masterp
Yes Sir. The question is "which of two clocks in uniform relative motion runs faster", and my reply is "either, depending on the viewer's position".
Originally posted by CLPrime
reply to post by Angelic Resurrection
The rates of change of the direction of the velocity vectors are the same, but the magnitudes of the velocity vectors are not. At the equator the magnitude of the instantaneous velocity is a real number, while, at the pole, the magnitude is 0. And, if you'll recall, velocity is proportional to the rate of change of the passage of time (Δt). So, the location with the greater velocity has a larger Δt, which translates into a slower proper time for the clock at the equator.
Of course it stores kinetic energy. So if you stop pushing it, it keeps going. But that doesn't really help you when you want to make it go faster.
Originally posted by LilDudeissocool
One more question, Prime.
If something gains mass while increasing its travel through space, and thus takes more energy to move it, why can't it simply store kinetic energy up like a freight train does for instance?
It seems like it would take less and less energy to move something faster and faster from stop to light speed. So do the laws reverse themselves at some point as velocity of an object increases?
Originally posted by Arbitrageur
Of course it stores kinetic energy. So if you stop pushing it, it keeps going. But that doesn't really help you when you want to make it go faster.
Originally posted by LilDudeissocool
One more question, Prime.
If something gains mass while increasing its travel through space, and thus takes more energy to move it, why can't it simply store kinetic energy up like a freight train does for instance?
It seems like it would take less and less energy to move something faster and faster from stop to light speed. So do the laws reverse themselves at some point as velocity of an object increases?
Have you ever tried to push a car? It's not easy, and the bigger and heavier the car the harder it is to push.
As an object gets closer to the speed of light, the relativistic mass increase makes it harder and harder to push. There's no reversal of any laws. Rather, it's more like an exponential increase. As the velocity approaches the speed of light, the force required to accelerate it approaches infinity.
Originally posted by LilDudeissocool
reply to post by CLPrime
Now can light be considered locked is a zero time realm because of this? Meaning light does not truly exist in our time. ... Other words light just is in the full existence of the fourth dimension. That's verses us living in the fourth dimension one slice at a time with no time depth. Existing as a complete 4th dimensional sort of sphere not as a string of connected recorded existence of matter of time past, if I could put in terms of that type of comparison.
And because of E=mc^2 this makes M-theory entirely possible.
Originally posted by LilDudeissocool
reply to post by CLPrime
Okay so matter is bound to Einstein's law of relativity, but light is not. Matter is locked in a paradox of sort between time and space so for matter traveling to light speed or near it is impossible. Light is freed from such a prison, and so can travel at the speed it does, but Its a constant so it can't be slowed nor sped up.
Now can light be considered locked is a zero time realm because of this? Meaning light does not truly exist in our time. Once released from matter (released by stars in the form of energies through nuclear processes) it simply defuses filling voids in space, but still all its energy exists at the same time in all time frames since its release from matter nor will it cease to exist after that point existing in all time frames to the end of time, big crunch whatever, which I personally believe is a recreation of the primeval atom. Other words light just is in the full existence of the fourth dimension. That's verses us living in the fourth dimension one slice at a time with no time depth. Existing as a complete 4th dimensional sort of sphere not as a string of connected recorded existence of matter of time past, if I could put in terms of that type of comparison.
And because of E=mc^2 this makes M-theory entirely possible.
Originally posted by CLPrime
Originally posted by LilDudeissocool
reply to post by CLPrime
And because of E=mc^2 this makes M-theory entirely possible.
...I'm not sure of the connection.