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People Who Pronounce and Spell the Name of Jesus In Weird Old Testament Variants are Going to Hell

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posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 11:30 AM
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Originally posted by NOTurTypical

Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by the4thhorseman
 

That is my point Christ did not have a name before the "Word became flesh"
The only pre-incarnation Jesus interaction with people I have found that says it explicitly is where he is said to have been the rock from which water came for the Israelites in the desert.


That's a metaphor, the rock was a foreshadow. So was the brass serpent, and the Passover lamb. You're clueless to the OT Christophanies. "THE Angel of the Lord" is the most common OT appearances of Christ.
Oh! I thought you were a literalist and don't believe in metaphors.

1 Corinthians 10:4 and drank the same spiritual drink; for they drank from the spiritual rock that accompanied them, and that rock was Christ

What you are calling, the OT Christophanies, are just your theories.
edit on 21-9-2011 by jmdewey60 because: (no reason given)




posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 11:35 AM
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We have the TRUE name of God. He has given it to us "I AM THAT I AM"...



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 11:37 AM
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Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by jmdewey60
 



My point is about intentionaly disregarding what the New Testament says Jesus' name is, and saying it has to be in Hebrew.


We're still waiting for an example of someone who thinks or who has said this^.
Go ahead and wait forever if you want and keep making these posts like this to keep the thread going forever, suites me just fine.



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 11:39 AM
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Originally posted by jmdewey60

Originally posted by NOTurTypical

Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by the4thhorseman
 

That is my point Christ did not have a name before the "Word became flesh"
The only pre-incarnation Jesus interaction with people I have found that says it explicitly is where he is said to have been the rock from which water came for the Israelites in the desert.


That's a metaphor, the rock was a foreshadow. So was the brass serpent, and the Passover lamb. You're clueless to the OT Christophanies. "THE Angel of the Lord" is the most common OT appearances of Christ.
Oh! I thought you were a literalist and don't believe in metaphors.


I've already corrected this in another thread. Being a literalist doesn't mean you turn a blind eye to the literary devices the Holy Spirit uses in His Word.


What you are calling, the OT Christophanies, are just your theories.


And what you're saying about them not being pre-incarnate appearances of Christ is likewise, just your theory.



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 11:41 AM
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Originally posted by the4thhorseman
We have the TRUE name of God. He has given it to us "I AM THAT I AM"...
That was just the angel who appeared to Moses saying that he was acting on his own behalf and not to be mistaken for the true God who he normally represented.



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 11:41 AM
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Originally posted by jmdewey60

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by jmdewey60
 



My point is about intentionaly disregarding what the New Testament says Jesus' name is, and saying it has to be in Hebrew.


We're still waiting for an example of someone who thinks or who has said this^.
Go ahead and wait forever if you want and keep making these posts like this to keep the thread going forever, suites me just fine.


Hey, I'm doing you a favor. Perhaps after another 28 pages and 1,000 more views this OP may get a 2nd star.

So you're not going to provide evidence that people believe or teach this? You expect us to take you at your word? You've got a horrible track record of telling the truth, sorry.

Where are examples of anyone teaching that the Hebrew name of Christ must be used? Just one example of someone saying this? ONE?



edit on 21-9-2011 by NOTurTypical because: (no reason given)



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 11:42 AM
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reply to post by jmdewey60
 



saying that he was acting on his own behalf and not to be mistaken for the true God who he normally represented



Source? Where does an angel say "he was acting on his own behalf and not to be mistaken for the true God who he normally represented"?



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 11:46 AM
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Words are containers, what matters is the meaning those words convey. In the hands of someone who truly understands what Jesus means, the pronunciation is irrelevant. There are no magic words - sorry Harry Potter fans - only magic meanings.



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 12:10 PM
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Originally posted by amodedoma
Words are containers, what matters is the meaning those words convey. In the hands of someone who truly understands what Jesus means, the pronunciation is irrelevant. There are no magic words - sorry Harry Potter fans - only magic meanings.
What if you present a variant word to which you ascribe a specific meaning, then is it now different from the original word?



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 12:12 PM
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Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by WarminIndy
 

There are Christians in Israel.

You call it Israel, I call it Palestine.




Again this shows me you have a issue with Jews and Israel, you are sounding more and more anti-Semitic as this post goes on.

And if these are your feelings, that is fine, you feel what you feel, at least be honest about it.



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 12:13 PM
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Originally posted by jmdewey60

Originally posted by the4thhorseman
We have the TRUE name of God. He has given it to us "I AM THAT I AM"...
That was just the angel who appeared to Moses saying that he was acting on his own behalf and not to be mistaken for the true God who he normally represented.


Back your statement please.



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 12:19 PM
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reply to post by NOTurTypical
 

I've already corrected this in another thread. Being a literalist doesn't mean you turn a blind eye to the literary devices the Holy Spirit uses in His Word.

And what you're saying about them not being pre-incarnate appearances of Christ is likewise, just your theory.
So when you say you are a literalist, you only mean that metaphorically.
No, my position is not a theory because of the simple fact that there is no verses saying that there were appearances of a pre-incarnate Jesus (other than the one I quoted, saying Christ was that rock). You would have to present a theory in order to state your position, and you have nothing else.



edit on 21-9-2011 by jmdewey60 because: (no reason given)



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 12:30 PM
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Originally posted by jmdewey60

Originally posted by the4thhorseman
We have the TRUE name of God. He has given it to us "I AM THAT I AM"...
That was just the angel who appeared to Moses saying that he was acting on his own behalf and not to be mistaken for the true God who he normally represented.


Please continue reading past verse 2. To see who was really talking to Moses.


2 There the angel of the LORD appeared to him in flames of fire from within a bush. Moses saw that though the bush was on fire it did not burn up.

3 So Moses thought, “I will go over and see this strange sight—why the bush does not burn up.”

4 When the LORD saw that he had gone over to look, God called to him from within the bush, “Moses! Moses!” And Moses said, “Here I am.”

5 “Do not come any closer,” God said. “Take off your sandals, for the place where you are standing is holy ground.”

6 Then he said, “I am the God of your father,[a] the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob.” At this, Moses hid his face, because he was afraid to look at God.



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 12:31 PM
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Originally posted by NOTurTypical

Originally posted by jmdewey60

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by jmdewey60
 



My point is about intentionaly disregarding what the New Testament says Jesus' name is, and saying it has to be in Hebrew.


We're still waiting for an example of someone who thinks or who has said this^.
Go ahead and wait forever if you want and keep making these posts like this to keep the thread going forever, suites me just fine.


Hey, I'm doing you a favor. Perhaps after another 28 pages and 1,000 more views this OP may get a 2nd star.

So you're not going to provide evidence that people believe or teach this? You expect us to take you at your word? You've got a horrible track record of telling the truth, sorry.

Where are examples of anyone teaching that the Hebrew name of Christ must be used? Just one example of someone saying this? ONE?


If there are no such persons, then you have no reason to be concerned, since according to you, this thread applies to no one.



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 01:20 PM
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Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by jmdewey60
 



saying that he was acting on his own behalf and not to be mistaken for the true God who he normally represented



Source? Where does an angel say "he was acting on his own behalf and not to be mistaken for the true God who he normally represented"?
I will quote some verse, since this seems to be what you are asking for.

The angel of the Lord appeared to him in a flame of fire from within a bush.

He added, “I am the God of your father, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob.”

Moses said to God, “If I go to the Israelites and tell them, ‘The God of your fathers has sent me to you,’ and they ask me, ‘What is his name?’ – what should I say to them?”

God said to Moses, “I am that I am.” And he said, “You must say this to the Israelites, ‘I am has sent me to you.’”


Later, when Moses complains to The Lord about His apparent inaction for good and His apparent evil results from his following Him, you find this:
God spoke to Moses and said to him, “I am the Lord. I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob as God Almighty, but by my name ‘the Lord’ I was not known to them.

The Lord goes on to say he make the covenant about the land Abraham's descendants were to inherit at some unspecified time in the distant future. After this bit of history telling background information, this person talking to Moses says:
Therefore, tell the Israelites, ‘I am the Lord. I will bring you out from your enslavement to the Egyptians, I will rescue you from the hard labor they impose, and I will redeem you with an outstretched arm and with great judgments. I will take you to myself for a people, and I will be your God. Then you will know that I am the Lord your God, who brought you out from your enslavement to the Egyptians. I will bring you to the land I swore to give to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob – and I will give it to you as a possession. I am the Lord!’”
What you have in this scene is an angel who had presented himself in a distant past time, to a distant forefather, under the name of a past manifestation of God. In contrast to that former, Oath-Making God, the spokesman declares that under this new manifestation of God, presented by himself, is the Oath-Keeping God.



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 01:40 PM
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Originally posted by daikaiju

Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by WarminIndy
 

There are Christians in Israel.

You call it Israel, I call it Palestine.




Again this shows me you have a issue with Jews and Israel, you are sounding more and more anti-Semitic as this post goes on.

And if these are your feelings, that is fine, you feel what you feel, at least be honest about it.
This is a connection you are making in your own mind. Because I don't recognize the legitimacy of a "Jewish state" does not man I have issues with Jews. What I take issue with is people who subvert Christianity.



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 01:42 PM
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Originally posted by jmdewey60

Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by jmdewey60
 



saying that he was acting on his own behalf and not to be mistaken for the true God who he normally represented



Source? Where does an angel say "he was acting on his own behalf and not to be mistaken for the true God who he normally represented"?
I will quote some verse, since this seems to be what you are asking for.

The angel of the Lord appeared to him in a flame of fire from within a bush.

He added, “I am the God of your father, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob.”

Moses said to God, “If I go to the Israelites and tell them, ‘The God of your fathers has sent me to you,’ and they ask me, ‘What is his name?’ – what should I say to them?”

God said to Moses, “I am that I am.” And he said, “You must say this to the Israelites, ‘I am has sent me to you.’”


Later, when Moses complains to The Lord about His apparent inaction for good and His apparent evil results from his following Him, you find this:
God spoke to Moses and said to him, “I am the Lord. I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob as God Almighty, but by my name ‘the Lord’ I was not known to them.

The Lord goes on to say he make the covenant about the land Abraham's descendants were to inherit at some unspecified time in the distant future. After this bit of history telling background information, this person talking to Moses says:
Therefore, tell the Israelites, ‘I am the Lord. I will bring you out from your enslavement to the Egyptians, I will rescue you from the hard labor they impose, and I will redeem you with an outstretched arm and with great judgments. I will take you to myself for a people, and I will be your God. Then you will know that I am the Lord your God, who brought you out from your enslavement to the Egyptians. I will bring you to the land I swore to give to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob – and I will give it to you as a possession. I am the Lord!’”
What you have in this scene is an angel who had presented himself in a distant past time, to a distant forefather, under the name of a past manifestation of God. In contrast to that former, Oath-Making God, the spokesman declares that under this new manifestation of God, presented by himself, is the Oath-Keeping God.



First off, Lord really is LORD which was the replacement for YHWH, and as it is written the angel of the LORD appeared but it was the LORD who spoke when he came too close to the bush.



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 01:47 PM
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Originally posted by jmdewey60

Originally posted by daikaiju

Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by WarminIndy
 

There are Christians in Israel.

You call it Israel, I call it Palestine.




Again this shows me you have a issue with Jews and Israel, you are sounding more and more anti-Semitic as this post goes on.

And if these are your feelings, that is fine, you feel what you feel, at least be honest about it.
This is a connection you are making in your own mind. Because I don't recognize the legitimacy of a "Jewish state" does not man I have issues with Jews. What I take issue with is people who subvert Christianity.



Just exactly what you are doing.

And if you do not recognize Israel they you do not recognize the promise YHWH made to Abraham concerning his descendents and their legitimate claims to the Holy Land.

If you have a issue with the Jewish state by proxy you are anti-semitic.



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 01:47 PM
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reply to post by the4thhorseman
 

Please continue reading past verse 2. To see who was really talking to Moses.
God, that is what it says, who was before Moses was God. This is Yahweh. Yahweh was the God who Moses knew and dealt with for the rest of his life, from this point on. This is the God of Moses, Yahweh.
The person before him, speaking to him, who he averted his gaze from, was his God.

edit on 21-9-2011 by jmdewey60 because: (no reason given)



posted on Sep, 21 2011 @ 02:03 PM
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Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by the4thhorseman
 

Please continue reading past verse 2. To see who was really talking to Moses.
God, that is what it says, who was before Moses was God. This is Yahweh. Yahweh was the God who Moses knew and dealt with for the rest of his life, from this point on. This is the God of Moses, Yahweh.
The person before him, speaking to him, who he averted his gaze from, was his God.

edit on 21-9-2011 by jmdewey60 because: (no reason given)


You stated earlier that the one speaking in the bush was an angel:



That was just the angel who appeared to Moses saying that he was acting on his own behalf and not to be mistaken for the true God who he normally represented.


Now you are saying it was God ......




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