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Maybe you are missing my point of the whole thread.
Originally posted by the4thhorseman
reply to post by jmdewey60
No you are missing my point with the whole story of Job. Job had faith in a savior, a savior he did not know by name but Job knew he would see his Savoir. Yet he believed in Him. I am saying GOD knows the heart and He knows who we are speaking of when we speak of Jesus, Christ, Son of God, Yahshua, Yehoshua, Y'shua, Yeshua, Iesous, Iesus.
What was the name of Christ before He was a man? I can't even seem to find an agreement on how to spell the actual Hebrew name.
What was the name of Christ before He was a man?
I can't even seem to find an agreement on how to spell the actual Hebrew name.
Originally posted by NewAgeMan
I think the OP's issue, if I can intuit it, boils down to the notion that Jesus, in his death and resurrection, represents a whole new spiritual basis and foundation, but that Yahweh of the OT represents God as an actor or agent, as a separate entity. The NEW Covenent then, is a whole new reality, and Jesus' father in heaven, the Absolute as Absolute Love and Goodness without compromise, not even the creator God as a role that God may have assumed, but God the Most High, as the Transcendant Godhead at one with Jesus, and though him, we ourselves. There is a demarcation here, a delimiter, of before, and after, the death and resurrection of Jesus, a shift and an exchange of kingdoms, spiritually, and to the degree that we might be given to understand it and integrate it, psychologically, as a formative causation, of the love of God through Jesus Christ who said "I have only one commandment. Love one another as I have loved you."
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by WarminIndy
How can this be true?
You have told us we are going to hell for believing in Yehushua, even though it is merely His name in Hebrew.
Let me see if I can see how this would apply.
We can have a hypothetical Jew who was born in Israel who was strictly taught to never utter a word which was not in Hebrew, and spent their life in seclusion or in communities that strictly enforced rules for never speaking a word not of Hebrew. Somehow, this young person is able to escape the ever watchful eye to see or hear about a thing called a New Testament and wants to read it, but needs it to be in Hebrew to understand it. Oops there is no such thing, nor would anything like that ever be allowed in Israel.
Originally posted by NewAgeMan
Originally posted by NewAgeMan
I think the OP's issue, if I can intuit it, boils down to the notion that Jesus, in his death and resurrection, represents a whole new spiritual basis and foundation, but that Yahweh of the OT represents God as an actor or agent, as a separate entity. The NEW Covenent then, is a whole new reality, and Jesus' father in heaven, the Absolute as Absolute Love and Goodness without compromise, not even the creator God as a role that God may have assumed, but God the Most High, as the Transcendant Godhead at one with Jesus, and though him, we ourselves. There is a demarcation here, a delimiter, of before, and after, the death and resurrection of Jesus, a shift and an exchange of kingdoms, spiritually, and to the degree that we might be given to understand it and integrate it, psychologically, as a formative causation, of the love of God through Jesus Christ who said "I have only one commandment. Love one another as I have loved you."
bump post...
people tend to get too wrapped up in being right relative to another's wrong, so I'm just asking everyone to pause and given consideration to a new possibility, of a purely spiritual nature.
Originally posted by Praetorius
reply to post by akushla99
As far as I can tell just setting jm to "posts in thread", it looks like the whole point is that someone somewhere said you've got to use the hebrew variants of the names or you won't have salvation, as applies to those who *refuse* to use the name Jesus since it's what's written in the bible.
I'm OK with that, but when we came down to calling the god the jews swore to on Sinai a 'genocidal murderer god' or some such who's been downgraded to simply being an angel with the appearance of Christ in the new testament, as well as stating that there's no evidence for the history of the jews as given in the bible and calling it all mythology - I start getting really confused and more than a little concerned since that undermines everything that Christ was built on.
Originally posted by Praetorius
reply to post by akushla99
As far as I can tell just setting jm to "posts in thread", it looks like the whole point is that someone somewhere said you've got to use the hebrew variants of the names or you won't have salvation, as applies to those who *refuse* to use the name Jesus since it's what's written in the bible (even though what's written in the bible is actual Iesous, for the most part, and is merely one language's version of what we would call Joshua - and was finally translated AS Joshua in the book of Acts to clarify it was not a reference to Christ).
I'm OK with that, but when we came down to calling the god the jews swore to on Sinai a 'genocidal murderer god' or some such who's been downgraded to simply being an angel with the appearance of Christ in the new testament, as well as stating that there's no evidence for the history of the jews as given in the bible and calling it all mythology - I start getting really confused and more than a little concerned since that undermines everything that Christ was built on.
edit on 9/20/2011 by Praetorius because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by WarminIndy
Originally posted by NewAgeMan
Originally posted by NewAgeMan
I think the OP's issue, if I can intuit it, boils down to the notion that Jesus, in his death and resurrection, represents a whole new spiritual basis and foundation, but that Yahweh of the OT represents God as an actor or agent, as a separate entity. The NEW Covenent then, is a whole new reality, and Jesus' father in heaven, the Absolute as Absolute Love and Goodness without compromise, not even the creator God as a role that God may have assumed, but God the Most High, as the Transcendant Godhead at one with Jesus, and though him, we ourselves. There is a demarcation here, a delimiter, of before, and after, the death and resurrection of Jesus, a shift and an exchange of kingdoms, spiritually, and to the degree that we might be given to understand it and integrate it, psychologically, as a formative causation, of the love of God through Jesus Christ who said "I have only one commandment. Love one another as I have loved you."
bump post...
people tend to get too wrapped up in being right relative to another's wrong, so I'm just asking everyone to pause and given consideration to a new possibility, of a purely spiritual nature.
The thing is here, the maker of this post is anti-Orthodox Christian saying he is a Christian, and saying all the rest of us are going to hell, for saying Jesus in the Hebrew. He has made the assertion that Hebrew was not really a language until the State of Israel in 1948.
He is not honest because he can't say what faith system he is using to make his theology. He knows the very scriptures that tells us not to receive any Gospel that is not the one we have been taught. So far he has told us, the posters, that because we believe in Jesus as we have been taught, are going to hell.
At least you, in your username, have defined your theology. And when I say theology I mean the system of religious ideals you study and believe.
He has said that people who say the Hebrew word for Jesus are going to hell. We have explained to him that even though there is a small group of people who think you must use only the Hebrew, the rest of us understand there are different languages and we are ok with people speaking the name Jesus. And he has condemned these people by saying they believe in esoterical thinking, but then says the OT and portions of the NT is allegorical. But by studying in the manner he does is also esoteric.
That was the original issue, the people who say Jesus in Hebrew are going to hell. He believes in an allegorical hell, then tells us we are going to this "allegorical" hell. That is what the issue is.
I think the intent of the thread is disingenuous, and a fishing trip, from the start!
Originally posted by Praetorius
reply to post by NewAgeMan
Fair enough...I'm just hoping for some information clarifying that I've somehow misunderstood what's been posted here, as a good bit of it smacks too much of attributing the works and words of god in the old testament to evil, which seems to walk way too close to blasphemy of the holy spirit, as when the pharisees tried to ascribe the works of Christ to Beelzebub.
Originally posted by daikaiju
The OP in another thread stated he was part of a 7th Day Adventist church, if that clears anything up.
Originally posted by Praetorius
What's been mentioned in this thread seems to be something else entirely.
Originally posted by WarminIndy
Originally posted by Praetorius
What's been mentioned in this thread seems to be something else entirely.
I know. That is why I kept asking but he would not answer those. He has a hodge-podge of Hinduism, Jainism, Zoroastrianism, Islam, and Christianity. He continually flip-flopped on the most basic things that even he said. He would post something and then wonder where we got that he posted it.
Maybe he is BaHai.edit on 9/20/2011 by WarminIndy because: (no reason given)
Originally posted by NewAgeMan
His talk of other's swallowing demons, taking poision, being bitten by snakes, etc. etc., it's all a little disconcerting, on the basis of the golden rule.