Does UNSCR 1441 justifies the military action against Iraq for their "final opportunity to comply"

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posted on Aug, 5 2011 @ 11:39 PM
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I was think about since that the UN 1441 made it a legal conflict because i'm not sure that UN 1441 implicated military action? I cannot sure sure but i recalled that UN inspectors that that while Iraq was complying, it was not full and immediate. Was Saddam violating a lot of UN resolutions tat bring the end of the conclusion of the Gulf War? Me and my friends were debating on this for years and we still don't know if UN 1441 made Iraq a legal conflict. Was it a war crime to attack without UN approval or something? I also heard about the UN oil-for-food scandal Saddam was bribing them.




posted on Aug, 6 2011 @ 12:20 AM
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reply to post by Paulioetc15
 


None of the clauses (the numbered articles) which are the only legal binding sections of any Security Council resolution, permit the use of force. Therefore the 2003 invasion of Iraq was not legally mandated by UNR 1441.



posted on Aug, 6 2011 @ 11:53 AM
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reply to post by SpeachM1litant
 


i also found that in Janury 2003 Iraq was not complying for some reason idk.





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