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Originally posted by Talltexxxan
reply to post by Angelaisaac
They fed the first worms to the second group?!
Thats very highlander-ish
Your thoughts and knowledge are now mine!!!!! BWAHAHAHA!!
But seriously thats wild that they would react to the stimulant after just eating the remains of their former buddies. very strange indeed.
In 1953, Dr. James McConell began performing labyrinthine experiments with planarian worms (Dugesia dorotocephala) at the University of Michigan, training them, using the punishment operand of classical conditioning, to learn over a period of months to consistently follow the most effective route through a maze.
This is all old hat. Planarian worms are cheaper to buy and keep alive than lab rats. Nothing new. But it was what he did next which raised a few eyebrows.
Keeping track of how long it had taken the entire first group of worms to successfully learn how to run the maze, he killed them all and fed the remains to a second group of hitherto untrained worms. Keeping this second group and a third control group of planarians (on a normal, non-cannibalistic diet) isolated, they were all trained to run the same maze using the same method as with the first group of worms.
The control group of worms took roughly the same amount of time to learn to run the maze as the first batch had, but the group which had eaten the first, educated bunch learned to run the maze considerably faster than both the control group and the original group on which they had dined. It was as though by eating the first group of learned worms, they had in some small way attained a not insignificant glimmer of the knowledge which had been previously imparted unto their dinners.
"That maybe explains the custom among cannibal tribes of eating the wise man after his death in order to recieve his wisdom. General, you could go into a delicatessen and order Einstein on pumpernickel..." - Alan Moore, The Anatomy Lesson
Originally posted by AdAstra
reply to post by Talltexxxan
Didn't you say you kept your lips firmly closed? If so, how could it be "subvocal speech"?
"Speech" by definition implies speaking. "Subvocal speech" is simply a fancy name for "(almost) inaudible speech", but it IS speech
Originally posted by AdAstra
reply to post by Talltexxxan
Believe me (or not ), I am familiar with "subvocal speech", for professional reasons.
Besides, you did not use your vocal cords, did you?
You cannot use them unwittingly, unless you are really "out of it".