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Why God's Word The Bible IS Infallible!

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posted on Aug, 8 2011 @ 09:24 PM
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reply to post by edmc^2
 


Well I'm remembering something about a name your mentioning but can't remember much detail. In Judaism we have many terms and names for God. I usually don't worry but spelling God 'G-d'. I always use the name HaShem (the name). It is a popular term use by Orthodox Jews.
Names of God in Judaism
Names of God Judaism 101
Hopefully thee links help. I'm not a rabbi so, I'm always hitting dead ends.



posted on Aug, 9 2011 @ 08:02 AM
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reply to post by edmc^2
 


You wrote (on 'direction' of the debate):

["You're the one who keeps changing it."]

Well, we have obviously different opinions on what a direction is and how this is applied.

So to save a lot of semantic gymnastics, I'll repeat MY directed lack-of-direction.

'Infallible' is an objective claim, which also can be considered to be a subjective claim of objectivity, an objective claim of subjectivity, and ofcourse for "it's 'god' what did it all"-adherers, an objective claim of objectivity.

And any accusations of excessive semantics, such as a non-method being, or possibly not being a 'method', is NOT excessive semantics. because it's self-evident, that it's not excessive semantics, and that the non-method method also is self-evident.

The last point being demonstrated with the non-existence of JW bible-study groups, which really aren't bible-study groups, because of the self-evidence being very self-evident, but rather to remind potential JW converts about this self-evidence, in case they forget.

Be it far from me to question self-evidence, I'm but an humble ignoramus being lost in logic.

And thus ensnared in worthless logic, my basic point of questioning a reasoning-chain of: "Why" answered with "because", counts for nothing compared to self-evidence. It's even possible, that logic comes from one of the adversary bad guys.

But being both stubborn and unenlightened concerning self-evidence, I seem to remember, that MY direction got lost somewhere around a point of a chain of events A - B - C being identical with another chain of events B - A - C, because of self-evidence used in a non-method method of semantic context.

Isn't it great fun to be on your own debate home-ground. I'm sure, you agree with this debate method, though probably not with my self-evident conclusions. My self-evidence is most likely of an inferior quality.



posted on Aug, 9 2011 @ 08:36 AM
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reply to post by ManOfGod267
 


This is not an attack on you, rather an (at least partial) agreement.

In what some theists call the 'narrow path' (which by un-necessarily critical non-theists is called a tunnel-reality) giving names to the nameless appears to be important.

My friend Akragon calls it 'love', and while I academically don't agree with that as an ultimate description, it does give some sense from a mundane, pragmatic perspective.

E.g. that a manifestation of such 'real' unconditional love (as opposed to the semantic bait called mumble..mumble.. conditional 'love') doesn't inspire the most enthusiatic 'bhakties' ('love'-adherers) to use violence as an expression of love.

I COULD write a very scholarly thesis on the 'nameless', if it wasn't that

a/ It would terminally bore readers.

b/ Would be off-topic.

But just give me half a chance, and I'll be there like a shot.



posted on Aug, 9 2011 @ 01:44 PM
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Originally posted by edmc^2
reply to post by Akragon
 





Unfortunatly my friend, the ONLY people that believe the NWT is the most accurate translation that exists, are people from your own church and no one else...

If we're talking about biblical scholars, or even your every day person that reads the bible... again the only people that agree with that statement are those from your flock...

Mormons believe they're version is the most accurate, muslims believe theirs is, christians believe theirs is...

JW's are no different then the rest of the religions competeing for "who is more correct"


Here are just sample of comments made by scholars who evaluated the NWT.


“The translation is evidently the work of skilled and clever scholars, who have sought to bring out as much of the true sense of the Greek text as the English language is capable of expressing.”—The Differentiator (Hebrew and Greek scholar Alexander Thomson).


Professor Benjamin Kedar, a Hebrew scholar in Israel, said:


“In my linguistic research in connection with the Hebrew Bible and translations, I often refer to the English edition of what is known as the New World Translation. In so doing, I find my feeling repeatedly confirmed that this work reflects an honest endeavor to achieve an understanding of the text that is as accurate as possible.”


The Andover Newton Quarterly of January 1963.


“The translation of the New Testament is evidence of the presence in the movement of scholars qualified to deal intelligently with the many problems of Biblical translation.”


But of course none of these comments from "experts" will matter if the New World Translation Bible is not able to stand under such intense scrutiny.

In fact many well recognized translations will not be able to stand if subjected to such intense sruitiny as the NWT was subjected to and is still being subjected to (year in year out).

As they say "proof is in the pudding".

(Note: the translator committees are not inspired by God or infallible - as such there's NO such thing as "Perfect Translation" or else there will be no need for revisions. As we increase our knowledge and understanding of the original Biblical words - thus revision is a norm - as long as the original intent of the words are preserved and a clearer meaning is achieved.)

For example - replacing God's Holy Name YHWH/YHVH/JHVH (Yahweh/Jehovah) with LORD changes the meaning of the name and muddies the intent of word. Or replacing the Hebrew word Sheol / Hades / Gehenna with "hell" changes the meaning of the word and introduces unscriptural traditions of men.

Here's just one example of the superiority of the NWT:


KJV - Psa 110:1 -
[[A Psalm of David.]] The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.


Which LORD said unto which Lord?

NWT

“Of David. A melody. 110 The utterance of Jehovah to my Lord is: “Sit at my right hand Until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet.”” (Psalm110:1)



So are you prepared to subject the KJV Bible to same criticism as the NWT was subjected to?





later...


Alright man believe whatever you like... either way this isn't about which translation is the best, its about your claim of the bible(s) being Gods infallible word....

I presented you with a few of the many passages where "God" not only condones murder and slavery, he commands it. Not to mention how "God" says you should stone your stuburn child, and of course the usual "kill homosexuals" thing.

I'll be waiting for your response.... Is that still Gods word, and if so.... Do you have a child, and have you stoned him recently?





posted on Aug, 9 2011 @ 02:13 PM
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reply to post by Akragon
 


It's tempting isn't it? This using bible-citations as missiles.

I'm so glad, that my lack of competence in this area prevents me from joining to any greater extent.



posted on Aug, 9 2011 @ 02:25 PM
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Originally posted by bogomil
reply to post by Akragon
 


It's tempting isn't it? This using bible-citations as missiles.

I'm so glad, that my lack of competence in this area prevents me from joining to any greater extent.



Most times people will see that the bible is not the complete word of God... many just ignore the fact that "inspired" doesn't mean directly from the source. As i've said many times before, i can show you hundreds of "inspired" messages from angels and prophets. Does that mean they're from who they claim? Of course not, its impossible to factually prove anything that is "inspired". Revelations is the perfect example, it sounds nothing like how Jesus spoke, it reads nothing like jesus spoke, at least compared to the four gospels we have.

Inspired means nothing to me, and revelations has little to no valuble information in it. And the so called "prophecies" in revelations could be speaking of any time. To me revelations is nothing but a book written by an old man in a cave, but again thats just my opinion of it.

I've also found with the majority of JW's, they tend to disregard the facts presented in the bible regardless of how silly they might seem.

I can't wait to hear his response to those passages i gave him. I wonder if he believes homosexuals should all die, and if you should stone your child if he misbehaves.... That is what God commanded according to the "infallible word"

This should abruptly end this thread, unless he comes up with something good.




posted on Aug, 9 2011 @ 02:47 PM
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reply to post by Akragon
 


You wrote:

["I can't wait to hear his response to those passages i gave him. I wonder if he believes homosexuals should all die, and if you should stone your child if he misbehaves.... That is what God commanded according to the "infallible word""]

I admire your optimism in hoping for anything in that direction.

Quote: ["This should abruptly end this thread, unless he comes up with something good."]

Please don't. This thread is as almost as good as listening to Spike Jones or looking at South Park.



posted on Aug, 9 2011 @ 02:51 PM
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reply to post by bogomil
 



Please don't. This thread is as almost as good as listening to Spike Jones or looking at South Park.



ROFLMAO!!!!

Thanks man i needed a good laugh...

I've delt with JW's on many occasions so i know exactly what to expect, though at times people can supprise you.

Ye never know what he might come up with eh... Perhaps i overlooked some passage that said something along the lines of... "ooops, don't be nasty to those people i was just kidding"
-signed God-

Though i have my doubts


edit on 9-8-2011 by Akragon because: (no reason given)



posted on Aug, 9 2011 @ 07:30 PM
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reply to post by Akragon
 


ok- i'm back ....



Alright man believe whatever you like... either way this isn't about which translation is the best, ...


I thought you wanted to know why the NWT is the best translation out there? So I answered your Q. And as you can see it's not just my words but the testimony of others. But like I said - proof is in the pudding - you can subject this translation to the most extensive of scrutinies and it will still come on top.

So let's address your misconceptions:

That is -


its about your claim of the bible(s) being Gods infallible word.... I presented you with a few of the many passages where "God" not only condones murder and slavery, he commands it. Not to mention how "God" says you should stone your stuburn child, and of course the usual "kill homosexuals" thing. I'll be waiting for your response.... Is that still Gods word, and if so.... Do you have a child, and have you stoned him recently?


Let's take a look at the verses you've provided in your older post, namely: Duet 21:18 - 21




Kill your stuborn child...

18If a man have a stubborn and rebellious son, which will not obey the voice of his father, or the voice of his mother, and that, when they have chastened him, will not hearken unto them:

19Then shall his father and his mother lay hold on him, and bring him out unto the elders of his city, and unto the gate of his place;

20And they shall say unto the elders of his city, This our son is stubborn and rebellious, he will not obey our voice; he is a glutton, and a drunkard.

21And all the men of his city shall stone him with stones, that he die: so shalt thou put evil away from among you; and all Israel shall hear, and fear.


So your claim is - the Bible is not the Word of God and not infallible because it says to "Kill your stuborn child..."

You've concluded this without even investigating why the command was given? You've judged God's word with your misconceptions? Why I'm not surprise!

Typical.

Here's the explanation.

But first let's clarify something that you've didn't bother to look at.

That is - the "child" that your referring to here is not a child at all.

Notice:

1) v20: the "child" is both "a glutton, and a drunkard". By referring to their son of as a "glutton, and a drunkard" it means that the "child" is an adult - a man not a "child". For how can a "child" be "a glutton, and a drunkard"?

2) This man is also a "stubborn and rebellious son" who "will not obey the voice of his father, or the voice of his mother, and that, when they have chastened him, will not hearken unto them:"

This shows that this "glutton, and a drunkard" of a son doesn't respect his parents. And there's no doubt that his parents had done all they could to reform him - this their adult ""a glutton, and a drunkard" son but with no success. Thus as part of the community, these Israelite parents had a responsibility to seek help in order to maintain and abide by the laws given to the nation because they know that INTENTIONAL violation of the law is punishable by death.

So what did they do next? They "bring him out unto the elders of his city, and unto the gate of his place".

Was this "stubborn and rebellious".. "glutton, and a drunkard" of a man condemned right away?

No, but rather mercy was shown to this "stubborn and rebellious son" who is both "glutton, and a drunkard" by affording him with a hearing. Sadly after looking at the matter, the man was still rebellious and will not listen even to the "elders of the city", so the only thing left for the community to do is to obey the law:

That is "so shalt thou put evil away from among you; and all Israel shall hear, and fear."


Now let's compare how punishment is delivered by other nations during the Patriarchal period and see which one is a just standard.

Here's a comparison of how justice was delivered during the Patriarchal period in the Middle East:

The author of the book Family, Love and the Bible said:



“In fact, the patriarch’s absolute power over life and death of the members of his family included the right to decide at the time a child was born to him whether to let it live or to condemn it to die. We know from historical documents . . . from pre-Islamic times down to the nineteenth century that often a father decided to put to death a daughter either immediately upon her birth or at a later date. The usual method of putting a newborn daughter to death was to bury her alive in the sands of the desert.”—Family, Love and the Bible, p. 122.


So which law do you think is just and which one is cruel?

The law given to Moses and the nation of Israel - no doubt is a just standard since the accused is given the opportunity to change his ways. The penalty is not handed down by one person but by the community "elders". A trial or hearing is afforded the accused - only when it's determined that the accused will not change then the penalty is implemented.

The rest of the scriptures you've provided when examined carefully will also show the same situation - God's laws are just even for the guilty.

But since you're morality is not governed by God's moral code of conduct then of course you'll have a different POV just like people who doesn't have love for God and disregard his laws.

SO again - the Word Of God is NEVER mistaken - try as may to disprove this - you will only fail and in the end you'll have no choice but to accept it or ignore it at your detriment.

Time is running out!!



posted on Aug, 9 2011 @ 07:36 PM
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Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by bogomil
 



Please don't. This thread is as almost as good as listening to Spike Jones or looking at South Park.



ROFLMAO!!!!

Thanks man i needed a good laugh...

I've delt with JW's on many occasions so i know exactly what to expect, though at times people can supprise you.

Ye never know what he might come up with eh... Perhaps i overlooked some passage that said something along the lines of... "ooops, don't be nasty to those people i was just kidding"
-signed God-

Though i have my doubts


edit on 9-8-2011 by Akragon because: (no reason given)


Laugh all you want but:


“...know this first, that in the last days there will come ridiculers with their ridicule, proceeding according to their own desires 4 and saying: “Where is this promised presence of his? Why, from the day our forefathers fell asleep [in death], all things are continuing exactly as from creation’s beginning.”” (2 Peter 3:3-4)


you're fulfilling this very prophecy!!



posted on Aug, 9 2011 @ 07:39 PM
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Originally posted by bogomil
reply to post by Akragon
 


It's tempting isn't it? This using bible-citations as missiles.

I'm so glad, that my lack of competence in this area prevents me from joining to any greater extent.



By all means - launch all the missiles and I'll show you that they are just mere poppers - duds.




posted on Aug, 9 2011 @ 08:07 PM
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reply to post by bogomil
 


Since you haven't gotten it yet:

The reason Why God's Word The Bible IS Infallible! is not just "because" but that Jehovah God is a Living God and made sure that his written word the Bible IS an Infallible Guide. It's also INFALLIBLE for a fact that ALL of his WORDS written therein will COME TRUE!

Here's one for you:


“. . .“Tell us, When will these things be, and what will be the sign of your presence and of the conclusion of the system of things?”” (Matthew 24:3)

“. . .“For nation will rise against nation and kingdom against kingdom, and there will be food shortages and earthquakes in one place after another. 8 All these things are a beginning of pangs of distress.” (Matthew 24:7-8)


“. . .for then there will be great tribulation such as has not occurred since the world’s beginning until now, no, nor will occur again. 22 In fact, unless those days were cut short, no flesh would be saved; but on account of the chosen ones those days will be cut short.” (Matthew 24:21-22)

“. . .And this good news of the kingdom will be preached in all the inhabited earth for a witness to all the nations; and then the end will come.” (Matthew 24:14)


Does this apply to you? I hope not.


“...know this first, that in the last days there will come ridiculers with their ridicule, proceeding according to their own desires 4 and saying: “Where is this promised presence of his? Why, from the day our forefathers fell asleep [in death], all things are continuing exactly as from creation’s beginning.”” (2 Peter 3:3-4)



posted on Aug, 9 2011 @ 08:48 PM
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reply to post by bogomil
 



Now since you're so confident in portraying yourself as an expert when it comes to the Bible - it's now my turn to ask a very simple question.

Why did God give the Laws (600 including the 10 commandments) to the Nation of Israel?

I look forward to you clear explanation.

later...



posted on Aug, 9 2011 @ 09:01 PM
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reply to post by edmc^2
 



I thought you wanted to know why the NWT is the best translation out there?


What you call the best translation is not a universal concensus, this might be your opinion and the opinion of a few select others, but it isn't even a majority belief. JW's have their bible, and various christian sects have their own. I was questioning how you call the bible Gods word, when theres tons of translations which don't all say the same thing... and you don't adhear to a specific translation.


So I answered your Q. And as you can see it's not just my words but the testimony of others.


Opinions of a few people outside your flock do not make it a universal truth...


You've concluded this without even investigating why the command was given? You've judged God's word with your misconceptions? Why I'm not surprise!


Im questioning you not judging Gods words.... the bible is not Gods word. It is a book written millenia ago by people "inspired" by God. You're not supprized because the people of your religion deal with people like me on a daily basis, you have learned to judge everyone that doesn't agree with you...Typical?



Here's the explanation.

But first let's clarify something that you've didn't bother to look at.

That is - the "child" that your referring to here is not a child at all.


Do you honestly think that matters? I know the person they're talking about is not a child. Its a general statement about how this sort of person should be treated. Its not who the "child" is, its the act that is commanded to be carried out upon him that's "the" problem.



1) v20: the "child" is both "a glutton, and a drunkard". By referring to their son of as a "glutton, and a drunkard" it means that the "child" is an adult - a man not a "child". For how can a "child" be "a glutton, and a drunkard"?

2) This man is also a "stubborn and rebellious son" who "will not obey the voice of his father, or the voice of his mother, and that, when they have chastened him, will not hearken unto them:"

This shows that this "glutton, and a drunkard" of a son doesn't respect his parents. And there's no doubt that his parents had done all they could to reform him - this their adult ""a glutton, and a drunkard" son but with no success. Thus as part of the community, these Israelite parents had a responsibility to seek help in order to maintain and abide by the laws given to the nation because they know that INTENTIONAL violation of the law is punishable by death.

So what did they do next? They "bring him out unto the elders of his city, and unto the gate of his place".

Was this "stubborn and rebellious".. "glutton, and a drunkard" of a man condemned right away?

No, but rather mercy was shown to this "stubborn and rebellious son" who is both "glutton, and a drunkard" by affording him with a hearing. Sadly after looking at the matter, the man was still rebellious and will not listen even to the "elders of the city", so the only thing left for the community to do is to obey the law:

That is "so shalt thou put evil away from among you; and all Israel shall hear, and fear."



Was this "stubborn and rebellious".. "glutton, and a drunkard" of a man condemned right away?

No, but rather mercy was shown to this "stubborn and rebellious son" who is both "glutton, and a drunkard" by affording him with a hearing.


And now you're adding things that arn't there....

Where do you see a hearing in these verses...?

19Then shall his father and his mother lay hold on him, and bring him out unto the elders of his city, and unto the gate of his place;

20And they shall say unto the elders of his city, This our son is stubborn and rebellious, he will not obey our voice; he is a glutton, and a drunkard.

21And all the men of his city shall stone him with stones, that he die: so shalt thou put evil away from among you; and all Israel shall hear, and fear.



AND....yet again...

You've Completely missed the point...

I realize there was a time when things like this were normal.There was a time when you beat your wife and children when they don't listen... But we don't live in that age anymore, this is a relatively civilized society. My point is this isn't something thats done these days. So perhaps at one time this was Law.... But you're saying that every word of the bible is correct.....which leads me to believe you also think this is "still" correct... Because the bible is Gods word which is always correct....right?


Now let's compare how punishment is delivered by other nations during the Patriarchal period and see which one is a just standard.

Here's a comparison of how justice was delivered during the Patriarchal period in the Middle East:

The author of the book Family, Love and the Bible said:
...
blah blah blah
..
.
.

So which law do you think is just and which one is cruel?


What?!?!? What does that have to do with ANYTHING?!?!?

Both are cruel and unjust, Thou shall not Kill.... Remember?


The law given to Moses and the nation of Israel - no doubt is a just standard since the accused is given the opportunity to change his ways. The penalty is not handed down by one person but by the community "elders". A trial or hearing is afforded the accused - only when it's determined that the accused will not change then the penalty is implemented.


Realize that this is not a story about what happened to a man, these are rules and actions that should be taken in certian circumstances. Read the entire chapter...

And again that is beside the point... By todays standards everything that has been mentioned in this post is considered cruel and inhumain. Some of these things are still practiced in some countries because of this book, and others like it.......

So... In that circumstance, in places where this is still practiced to this day...

Do you believe this is morally correct because its Gods word? YES OR NO?


The rest of the scriptures you've provided when examined carefully will also show the same situation - God's laws are just even for the guilty.


Ohhhh, no you're not getting away that easy


The homosexuality thing is next.... But i'll wait til you reply to this post.


But since you're morality is not governed by God's moral code of conduct then of course you'll have a different POV just like people who doesn't have love for God and disregard his laws.


Actually im not Governed by the JW's God... Thank God!

Though he's been trying to convert me for far too long...

And your response to this post will show everyone Your God's code of "moral" conduct.... BTW... See what i mean when i said ... "you're trained to judge everyone that doesn't agree with you"

Believe it or not, i used to live with 3 JW's, You're no different then they were... Brainwashed...



SO again - the Word Of God is NEVER mistaken - try as may to disprove this - you will only fail and in the end you'll have no choice but to accept it or ignore it at your detriment.


You have yet to succeed in proving your claim... Rather pointless in saying that don't you think?


Time is running out!!


Ya you guys have been telling me that for years... I get your flyer every month, along with a knock at my door. In person you're easier to deal with because they don't have the internet at their fingertips... Im sure that will change soon now that we have ipads/phones...

Awww, crap... I wish i didn't just realize that..

:bnghd:
edit on 9-8-2011 by Akragon because: (no reason given)



posted on Aug, 9 2011 @ 09:04 PM
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Originally posted by edmc^2

Originally posted by Akragon
reply to post by bogomil
 



Please don't. This thread is as almost as good as listening to Spike Jones or looking at South Park.



ROFLMAO!!!!

Thanks man i needed a good laugh...

I've delt with JW's on many occasions so i know exactly what to expect, though at times people can supprise you.

Ye never know what he might come up with eh... Perhaps i overlooked some passage that said something along the lines of... "ooops, don't be nasty to those people i was just kidding"
-signed God-

Though i have my doubts


edit on 9-8-2011 by Akragon because: (no reason given)


Laugh all you want but:


“...know this first, that in the last days there will come ridiculers with their ridicule, proceeding according to their own desires 4 and saying: “Where is this promised presence of his? Why, from the day our forefathers fell asleep [in death], all things are continuing exactly as from creation’s beginning.”” (2 Peter 3:3-4)


you're fulfilling this very prophecy!!



LOL, prophecy doesn't exist...

How can i not laugh man?

You think you're answering people's questions but you're just digging your hole deeper...




posted on Aug, 10 2011 @ 02:37 AM
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Originally posted by edmc^2

Originally posted by bogomil
reply to post by Akragon
 


It's tempting isn't it? This using bible-citations as missiles.

I'm so glad, that my lack of competence in this area prevents me from joining to any greater extent.



By all means - launch all the missiles and I'll show you that they are just mere poppers - duds.



Try once more to read what I said, and see if you can understand it this time.



posted on Aug, 10 2011 @ 02:57 AM
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reply to post by edmc^2
 


You wrote:

["The reason Why God's Word The Bible IS Infallible! is not just "because" but that Jehovah God is a Living God and made sure that his written word the Bible IS an Infallible Guide."]

That's still a "Because". (Or said another way, a circle-argument: It's true, because it's true).

Quote: ["It's also INFALLIBLE for a fact that ALL of his WORDS written therein will COME TRUE!"]

When we have finished, what we started with on genesis 1 and 2, we can go to 'signs and wonders'. Have you forgotten that?

You are just stalling and making diversionary maneuvers now to avoid gen.1 & 2. If you can't or won't answer direct specific questions of my choice concerning the bible, this ofcourse means, that your claims are invalid.

It's not enough to cherrypick special parts or special areas and present that as generally representative.

SO: GEN. 1 AND 2. And stick with it.



posted on Aug, 10 2011 @ 03:44 AM
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Originally posted by edmc^2
reply to post by bogomil
 



Now since you're so confident in portraying yourself as an expert when it comes to the Bible - it's now my turn to ask a very simple question.

Why did God give the Laws (600 including the 10 commandments) to the Nation of Israel?

I look forward to you clear explanation.

later...


Where have I claimed bible-expertise?

I have a fair knowledge of hard-science/logic/soft-science and I'm familiar with the applications of ideology in general. That's my competence and that's from where 'I come from'; self-declared.



The reason for the OT Laws are, that the demon-lord Jahveh (the pretender-'god') is a schizoid sociopath (that's two different dysfunctions in one entity), more precisely concerning

a/ The schizoid part:

A very strongly developed paranoia/megalomania syndrome, which is so deep, that this entity has multiple ('split') personalities, which are unaware of each other. A severe condition, which would require both medication and therapy.

b/ The sociopath part:

An obsession with control, power and authority. Jahveh terrorizes when he can, and apparantly he can only get along with other beings, when these are zombified. Anyone trying to manifest free will etc. soon gets into (violent) conflict with this demon-lord. Sociopathy is generally not considered medically curable, as it is a voluntarily manifested character-defect, which actually is a choice-option rather than a mental illness.

Now whether Jahveh is 'real' or not is another question, but not important for the above. If he's just a fantasy as some claim, it's the fictive character from a mythological book, which is described and analysed above.

If he's 'real' as an entity (which I'm inclined to accept as a reasonable hypothesis), my above psychological profile must ofcourse be considered tentative. Demons probably have psyches somewhat different from humans, so the best we can do is to look at the situation from a pragmatic point.

How dangerous IS this demon-lord Jahveh? Comparing him to the closest parallel we have in mankind, Hitler (who didn't even had that much 'magick' as a demon has), I would say, that the demon-lord Jahveh is very, very dangerous, and that it's best to stay as far away from him as possible.

You asked for a clear explanation, this was it. If you're interested in more details, I can write another post on the demon-lord Jahveh's motives and MO.

PS As an afterthought I believe I had better add this: Anyone believing this post to be a studied insult, and starts thinking in terms of censorship, should think twice before engaging in any such activity. My thoughts are an expression of a non-christian, autonomous religion, persecuted by christianity. Any censorship will be censorship of the right to express religious ideas.


edit on 10-8-2011 by bogomil because: addition



posted on Aug, 10 2011 @ 04:39 AM
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reply to post by bogomil
 


it looks like bible supports your diagnosis

bible god made Adam in his own image and according to the story Adam didn’t know right from wrong - so the implication is bible god also doesn’t know right from wrong

And bible god gets upset after Adam learns right from wrong

Very interesting case study the bible god character



posted on Aug, 10 2011 @ 05:24 AM
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Originally posted by racasan
reply to post by bogomil
 


it looks like bible supports your diagnosis

bible god made Adam in his own image and according to the story Adam didn’t know right from wrong - so the implication is bible god also doesn’t know right from wrong

And bible god gets upset after Adam learns right from wrong

Very interesting case study the bible god character


I doubt if we ever get so far as to gen. 3 on this thread. For 20+ pages efforts have been made to make the thread-author stick to reality-checks, such as methodology of the 'logic' he uses...... and a comparison between gen.1 and 2....... and a comparison between gen 1 and science.

And for 20+ pages his response has been dodging from this and returning to: "Because".

But I don't mind. The more this kind of christianity profiles itself as is done here, the better. It's extremely unlikely, that a "BECAUSE" argument will attract many rational persons.

A FAITH-based position I can understand and respect (that is a TOLERANT faith-position), but not this pseudo-stuff. It deserves to by scrutinized.




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