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Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by NOTurTypical
Because you "dealt with it" doesn't automatically mean you made a convincing case.
Alright, go back to that thread where we were discussing judgement and come back here and tell me the part where you have a problem with my explanation.
Why don't you explain this and what it means exactly?
My hermeneutics is one of literal interpretation.
I take it from this comment that you did not take my advice and read up on Erasmus. Don't believe Wikipedia, if you don't want to but go to the library and check out some biographies of Erasmus and read those and get educated, dude. You are listening to propaganda and don't understand what happened and I'm trying to help you out but you need to break away from your cult long enough to read actual history.
That's madness.
What do you think I was doing?
I don't think it trumped the plain-text reading of Revelation.
Translation
Like Tyndale's translation and the Geneva Bible, the Authorized Version was translated primarily from Greek, Hebrew and Aramaic texts, although with secondary reference both to the Latin Vulgate, and to more recent scholarly Latin versions; two books of the Apocrypha were translated from a Latin source. Following the example of the Geneva Bible, words implied but not actually in the original source were distinguished by being printed in distinct type (albeit inconsistently), but otherwise the translators explicitly rejected word-for-word..
Old Testament
For their Old Testament, the translators used a text originating in the editions of the Hebrew Rabbinic Bible by Daniel Bomberg (1524/5), but adjusted this to conform to the Greek LXX or Latin Vulgate in passages to which Christian tradition had attached a Christological interpretation...
New Testament
For their New Testament, the translators chiefly used the 1598 and 1588/89 Greek editions of Theodore Beza, which also present Beza's Latin version of the Greek and Stephanus's edition of the Latin Vulgate. Both of these versions were extensively referred to, as the translators conducted all discussions amongst themselves in Latin. F.H.A. Scrivener identifies 190 readings where the Authorized Version translators depart from Beza's Greek text, generally in maintaining the wording of the Bishop's Bible and other earlier English translations. In about half of these instances, the Authorized Version translators appear to follow the earlier 1550 Greek Textus Receptus of Stephanus. For the other half, Scrivener was usually able to find corresponding Greek readings in the editions of Erasmus, or in the Complutensian Polyglot. However, in several dozen readings he notes that no printed Greek text corresponds to the English of the Authorized Version, which in these places derives directly from the Vulgate. For example, at John 10:16, the Authorized Version reads "one fold" (as did the Bishops' Bible, and the 16th century vernacular versions produced in Geneva), following the Latin Vulgate "unum ovile", whereas Tyndale had agreed more closely with the Greek, "one flocke" (μία ποίμνη). The Authorized Version New Testament owes much more to the Vulgate than does the Old Testament; still, at least 80% of the text is unaltered from Tyndale's translation.
I don't know who you are thinking of but it is not me. I don't having such rage. I am a bit annoyed that you don't do some actual research to check what I am saying and instead repeat nonsensical stuff not even relevant to what I was presenting.
Just let the rage out, not good to keep that bottled up inside. Good for you.
More irrelevant stuff. If you wanted to refute me, instead of showing how you do not understand where your Bible comes from, you could argue the actual point. One way would be to say something like, "Of course I would never think that there could be any merit in my having faith. My salvation is not based on my having faith because I would just be replacing one type of works-based salvation for another, if that was what I thought."
P.S. For virtually all the verses for the last 3 pages I have been using the ESV not the KJB.
My salvation is not based on my having faith because I would just be replacing one type of works-based salvation for another, if that was what I thought."
So God just chooses those He desires to have faith, and then gives it to them? So you are backing away from the idea that faith could be a product of your own efforts or a gift that you can either exercise to salvation or ignore and let stagnate, to your peril? So it is none of those?
God assigns faith.
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by NOTurTypical
God assigns faith.
So God just chooses those He desires to have faith, and then gives it to them?
So you are backing away from the idea that faith could be a product of your own efforts
or a gift that you can either exercise to salvation or ignore and let stagnate, to your peril?
Just a sort of predestination where faith is like a stamp on ones to not get thrown into the fire?
Faith is not anything you need to do anything with?
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by NOTurTypical
OK good! From this day forward, we will never bring up faith as having anything to do with salvation whatsoever.
It is just this esoteric concept of unwarranted salvation seeing how if things were done strictly by the book, none would be saved. There is grace that enters into the situation which allows a certain number to be saved, based on the merits of the life and death of Jesus. But a person having faith as an actual personal quality is forever tossed out the window, never to be seen again. Agreed?edit on 22-7-2011 by jmdewey60 because: (no reason given)
You need to take these two verses together because the phrase, "you may discern what is the will of God," ESV indicates how to interpret the word, pisteōs, in the next verse. In this case the word translated as faith means an ability to understand, and specifically, God, which a person not given this ability would not be able to discern.
Hmmm, interesting. So God assigns a certain measure of nothing to people as His good will decides??? (Romans 12:3)
Do not be conformed to this present world, but be transformed by the renewing of your mind, so that you may test and approve what is the will of God – what is good and well-pleasing and perfect. For by the grace given to me I say to every one of you not to think more highly of yourself than you ought to think, but to think with sober discernment, as God has distributed to each of you a measure of faith.
No, look at the verse.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by jmdewey60
Why is it so? Jesus explains the will of the Father in the gospels, and He says it's to believe on the one He sent. (Jesus).
Is that not "faith"?
Originally posted by jmdewey60
No, look at the verse.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by jmdewey60
Why is it so? Jesus explains the will of the Father in the gospels, and He says it's to believe on the one He sent. (Jesus).
Is that not "faith"?
“This is the work of God, that you believe in him whom he has sent.” ESV
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by NOTurTypical
I kind of grew up in this debate over the Reformation message and I was more in the camp of the justification by faith crowd. I would read different people getting in on the argument and talk about the errors the Reformers made and that we know better now and that's why you don't see serious scholars reading them to gain enlightenment into truths but to analyze where they went wrong. I thought these guys were just some deniers and poor sports or something and I studied the writings of the great historical men and realized they were going on false assumptions based on antiquated renderings of the scriptures. I gave my explanation for where the source of the problem was. But this is not just me being a smart ass, it is something I studied as hard as I could and among the very best minds in the world who were putting out theological journals and going to endless lectures and traveling and meeting with these modern day great reformation theology leaders of men.
What "folks" are you talking about?
I don't know why folks think justification is the finish line.
Nice little slogan but are you sure about that and what exactly is it that gives you that surety, that you are not mistaken?
His consistent message in all his epistles is one of the just shall live by faith, and salvation is by grace alone through faith alone. But that's just for salvation, salvation/justification isn't the finish line, that's just the beginning.
That is God's will in a general sense, that he sent His Son into the world so people would be saved.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
Originally posted by jmdewey60
No, look at the verse.
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
reply to post by jmdewey60
Why is it so? Jesus explains the will of the Father in the gospels, and He says it's to believe on the one He sent. (Jesus).
Is that not "faith"?
“This is the work of God, that you believe in him whom he has sent.” ESV
Hmmm, interesting. I was referring to this:
"For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and believes in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day.” John 6:40