Regarding the OP, if you are serious about wanting to know what Hell is, and if you're asking about the Biblical Hell, it's a compartment of Hades.
Hades has 3 compartments- Abraham's Bosom (also referred to as "paradise" in the OT), Abbadon/ the pit/ Hell, and the Abyss. Hades is a temporary
abode. When Christ died and before He was resurrected, He went to Abraham's Bosom and retrieved the Saints who until Christ's death were unfit to be
with God (it is only through Christ that anyone- past, present or future, is cleansed and fit to stand before God). He then escorted them to Heaven.
So AB is now empty. Abbadon/ the pit/ Hell is where the unsaved go upon death, but it too is a temporary place. At the Great White Throne judgment,
those in Hell will be judged and will then go to Gehenna/ the Lake of Fire. The Abyss is a temporary abode for fallen angels, they will eventually be
judged and will go to Tartarus. As for what Hell is, it's a place of eternal torment. What exactly the nature of that torment is we don't know, some
believe that it's merely separation from God while others believe it's physical torture of some type. About all we have to go on in the Bible though
is the story of Lazarus and the rich man where the rich man in Hell tells Abraham "Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus, that he may dip
the tip of his finger in water, and cool my tongue; for I am tormented in this flame." This is where most people get the notion that Hell is firey.
The common thought that Satan is a red guy with a tail and a pitchfork he constantly prods people with has no scriptural basis at all. In fact it's
quite clear that while the unsaved go to Hell upon death, Satan is not in Hell at all. He roams freely between Heaven and Earth for now. He will stand
against Christ at Armageddon and will fail, then he will be bound and cast into the pit for a thousand years. At the end of the thousand years he will
be released, will mount another war, will lose and will be cast into Gehenna. It is clear that Satan will be tormented forever and ever, but it is not
clear that this is the fate of the unsaved. It probably is not, it sounds more like after the judgment they will die for good, their souls will not
live on.
Originally posted by autowrench
And the God did many other atrocities too, such as the following:
He killed a man who refused to impregnate his widowed sister-in-law (Gen.38:9-10)
For every site like the one you link to, there is another site that debunks every single claim. Sometimes all you have to do is read the passage
yourself and you'll see the errors in the claims. I'll just give you a couple of examples because it would take all day to explain every one of them.
Regarding the above passage, this is in reference to Levirate-marriage which is a concept foreign to western cultures, but it was an important
principal of the era and was also part of the Mosaic Law. The custom was in place to ensure the family bloodline continued on which was (and is)
extremely important to the Jews. Onan was directed by God Himself to fulfill the law and he not only refused, but tried to hide the fact that he was
disobedient. He was killed for his disobedience.
Originally posted by autowrench
He excused a murderer and promised his protection (Gen. 4:8-15)
If you read the passage it's quite evident that God did not excuse him, in fact the "protection" was not protection at all, it was his punishment. To
be a fugitive in his time was a fate worse than death, and God marked him so that he would not be killed and would therefore have to live out his
entire life as a fugitive. And in those days people lived hundreds of years, so it was a long-lasting punishment.
Originally posted by autowrench
He required a woman to marry her rapist (Deut. 22:28:29)
The original Hebrew word used in this passage is not rape although some English translations have incorrectly described it as such (but not the King
James version which is widely regarded as the most accurate English translation). Rather, it is referring to voluntary sex. In those times the
tradition was for the groom to pay the bride's father a "bride price" for a virgin bride. The above passage is highlighting the fact that because the
two parties were found to have had sex out of marriage, the father was essentially denied the "bride price" and the law required the male participant
to marry the woman and pay her father the appropriate price.
Every other passage listed there also has a reasonable explanation, but I don't have time to explain them all. For those out there that are seeking
the truth, please research both sides of the argument with an open mind.
edit on 11-5-2011 by SavedOne because: Typo