posted on Apr, 15 2011 @ 09:29 PM
reply to post by tristar
Purely a layman's conjecture here...
I think, only an international criminal court could hear such a case.
And then, only if a judge is willing to grant that "harm" has been done. In this case the defense would focus on the absence of harm, in my
Now, if a class-action suit were brought, it could be possible to convincingly dispute such a claim, but I think you'd need hundreds of thousands of
plaintiffs( willing to accept the existence of the offense. And it would help if the case were brought with international plaintiffs, not just one
country; thereby make an international UN trail the only way to cover jurisdictional boundaries.) Lawyers could keep such a case muddled in minutiae
for an eternity.
Somehow.. I think the short answer is "no."
At least, not within the construct of "judicial process"; and without law... well, you can imagine what might happen.
Monopolies are impossible to boycott.