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Originally posted by CyberFawkes1105
Being that there is no way to differentiate between the two, i believe one must accept both theories to be possible in the event of a sensory anomaly.
Originally posted by Jinglelord
If we take into account that our senses can fool us, and that things can exist that we simply can not sense we must come to the same conclusion that as Mr. Descartes that the only thing we can really count on is in our mind, it is our thoughts.
Originally posted by Jinglelord
We don't know if what we sense on the outside is real and we certainly can't know what it is that we can't or don't sense.
Originally posted by Jinglelord
Now here is where we get into the paranormal. Let us say that we see a person come up to us that is see through. An obvious ghost. It behaves in a certain way and acts in a certain way and you are able to sense it for a moment or so. We have established your senses can fool you. So this could be an illusion, an imagining. Or it could be that you have perceived something you are not normally able to perceive. Unfortunately all you can really know is that it is in your mind.
So what do you now know? You know that you perceived a thing not normally associated with the current knowledge paradigm. You know that your senses can fool you. But you also know things that you can't sense exist.
Originally posted by Jinglelord
A person who conforms to a standard or rationality normally accepted would tell you that it is most rational to accept your senses can fool you and they were fooled. But wouldn't it be every bit as rational to accept that you have perceived something you can't normally perceive?
Originally posted by Jinglelord
I think both lines are fully acceptable and one should not be shunned for the other. When we see a ghost, spirit, demon, goblin, gnome or anything outside of the normal it is my solid belief that we would be remiss to consider that only that it was an illusion, or to consider only that what we have seen exists outside of our normal perception.