Originally posted by centurion1211
reply to post by loam
Don't have to find another example.
If it had been a U.S. couple the judge would have found criminal intent. The judge stated he did not find criminal intent because the man was acting under his belief system - sharia - even though that belief would not hold up for U.S. citizens.
And the fact that it was overruled has no bearing on this argument. It just means - for now - that saner judgement prevailed in the end.
After saying you'd be "right with me" if I found an example of sharia trumping U.S. law outside of this contract dispute, you are reneging on that? So, I (quickly) found one. In other words, it's OK with you if someone gets away with assault and battery in the U.S. by using a sharia defense?
Now you appear to be be doing nothing more than attempting to save face after putting yourself out on a logical limb. Somehow I expected more than that from you based on your previous posts.
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That's because the test for criminal intent is wholly subjective.


