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Bible Answers to Member Questions

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posted on Oct, 10 2014 @ 07:38 AM
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a reply to: Akragon

Ya, it is so.



posted on Jan, 22 2017 @ 03:29 PM
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How goes the questions and answers? From what I read, there are few true questions, and many alibis to sin. Using questions and willful ignorance as an excuse to deny man's accountability to God once you die. And you will die, regardless of what science and google are trying to do to prevent it.
edit on 22-1-2017 by Hilkiah1611 because: spelling, duh.



posted on Jan, 25 2017 @ 01:51 PM
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originally posted by: Hilkiah1611
How goes the questions and answers? From what I read, there are few true questions, and many alibis to sin. Using questions and willful ignorance as an excuse to deny man's accountability to God once you die. And you will die, regardless of what science and google are trying to do to prevent it.


If you have not yet, if you stay around here long enough, you will realise that there are few sons of God here, but a lot of nay-sayers and general riff-raff. I can hope, but can't imagine, that the membership rolls of this site will be well represented in the first resurrection...



posted on Jan, 25 2017 @ 04:55 PM
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a reply to: Lazarus Short

Well one can hope at least, I know I will be (1 John 5:13). God Himself told me I have eternal life from His book He wrote me, the Holy Bible. All I had to do was humbly ask for it.



posted on Jan, 28 2017 @ 01:37 AM
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originally posted by: KJV1611


Jesus never drank wine. This common misconception comes from the Gospel of John 2:1-10.
Read the story and tell me where he drunk wine.
Also, if he would have given his friends fermented wine, such as liquor as most people equate this with, he would have broken and old testament law.




Jesus must have drunk wine because he said he would "not drink henceforth" until in his fathers kingdom.
It means he drank but then quit until the afterlife. Because in heaven, even with no physical body, you can clearly still booze it up....?



posted on Jan, 12 2018 @ 11:42 PM
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a reply to: KJV1611

I got a honest question. The vessels of Roman 9, are these people unable to be saved?




Romans 9:20-23 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?
21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:
23 And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,


Why would any potter purposely create a pot just to destroy it? There must be more to this.



posted on Jan, 13 2018 @ 11:25 AM
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a reply to: KJV1611

Originally posted by WENEEDAREVOLUTION
Following on from my previous question, if God/Jesus fathered himself then how can Jesus be 'of the line of David'?
I ask this because the bible clearly states that Joseph and NOT Mary was of the line of David and as Joseph did'nt father Jesus then Jesus cannot be descended from David and as such cannot be the messiah because he does'nt have the credentials according to the old testament prophesies. Thank you in advance for your reply.
-----------------------
If I may add a thought.

Jesus did not father Himself. He was clearly begotten by the Spirit of His Father, [Matthew 1:18] -- There are two portions of man. One of this terrestrial substance which is the celestial and terrestrial image and the spirit which is of the celestial substance only. The terrestrial Jesus was the son of man while the Spirit Jesus was the Son of God who preexisted as the Word of God. AS the terrestrial Jesus died, His celestial spirit and image was restored as the Word of God. The terrestrial Jesus [flesh and blood] has returned to its source while His Celestial Spirit also returned to its source.

Therefore in His terrestrial genealogy,of Matthew 1:17 is that of his terrestrial substance only. This is recorded as being 14 generations from Noah to Abraham, 14 generations from Abraham to David and 14 generations from David to Jesus. But when you count up from David to the Messiah you get 13 generations and not 14 generation. Matthew 1:16 tells us that this is the genealogy of Mary through her husband Joseph.

As we go to Luke 3:23-38 we also see the genealogy of Joseph but we see an altogether different genealogy of Matthew than of Luke. We now see the 14 generations that Matthew did not show. Why? Does this prove that the bible is bogus? No, it certainly does not. In Matthew, this Joseph was the husband of Mary which is given to us as the genealogy of her husband Joseph but when you read Luke 3:23 very carefully you will see that indeed this Joseph was counted as the father of Mary and not her husband Joseph. This genealogy of Luke is that of Mary through her father [son of Heli] while the genealogy of Matthew was that of Mary's husband Joseph. Mary's husband and father were both named Joseph.

The reason I note this is that of critics who have misunderstandings.



posted on Jan, 14 2018 @ 09:22 AM
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Originally posted by DrCarter




I don't mean this as an attack I honestly am looking for a reason. Where did the bible give permission for the church to kill anyone who would not convert, sometimes in very inhuman ways? Allow for manifest destiny?



originally posted by: Scoundrel


He didn't. People love to commit crimes in His name and have forever. Where ever you have something wonderful, some jackasses will swoop in and screw it up or pervert it.


The Bible most certainly does give permission to kill unbelievers. Here are just a couple of examples. There are many more.

Deuteronomy 13
6 If your very own brother, or your son or daughter, or the wife you love, or your closest friend secretly entices you, saying, “Let us go and worship other gods” (gods that neither you nor your ancestors have known, 7 gods of the peoples around you, whether near or far, from one end of the land to the other), 8 do not yield to them or listen to them. Show them no pity. Do not spare them or shield them. 9 You must certainly put them to death. Your hand must be the first in putting them to death, and then the hands of all the people. 10 Stone them to death, because they tried to turn you away from the Lord your God, who brought you out of Egypt, out of the land of slavery.

12 If you hear it said about one of the towns the Lord your God is giving you to live in 13 that troublemakers have arisen among you and have led the people of their town astray, saying, “Let us go and worship other gods” (gods you have not known), 14 then you must inquire, probe and investigate it thoroughly. And if it is true and it has been proved that this detestable thing has been done among you, 15 you must certainly put to the sword all who live in that town. You must destroy it completely, both its people and its livestock.



posted on Jan, 14 2018 @ 09:48 AM
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a reply to: joelr


Jesus must have drunk wine because he said he would "not drink henceforth" until in his fathers kingdom. It means he drank but then quit until the afterlife. Because in heaven, even with no physical body, you can clearly still booze it up....?

You are mistaken. According to the doctrine of Jesus in 1st Corinthians 15:44 there is a new celestial body given to the justified naked spirit. This new soul will eat and drink the heavenly food and water of the New Jerusalem according to Revelation 2:7 and Revelation 22:2,14. Also there will be grapes on the new earth outside of New Jerusalem but not likely in the celestial city itself. There are two distinct physical bodies. One of the terrestrial substance and one of the celestial substance.



posted on Jan, 14 2018 @ 09:57 AM
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a reply to: Elcabong


The Bible most certainly does give permission to kill unbelievers. Here are just a couple of examples. There are many more. Deuteronomy 13 -----

The answers you gave were not of the church as was asked. Your answers were of the covenant of the Sinai convention of Moses. Jesus never taught or justified any killing of another human of Adamic seed.



posted on Jan, 14 2018 @ 10:06 AM
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a reply to: MonarchofBooks1611


Why would any potter purposely create a pot just to destroy it? There must be more to this.

The Creator did not purposely create simply to destroy. The entire purpose of the Creator is to offer eternal life and companionship to Him as a family. He needs eternal love as He is eternal love. A creation that rejects the chance to live forever in His love simply destroy themselves by their own choice. Not by the choice of the Creator.



posted on Jan, 14 2018 @ 05:22 PM
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a reply to: Seede

Sounds good to me! But there are GIANT differences of belief on this subject. All of Christendom is split over it actually....

I hold to your interpretation too.




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