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I have a question.
In the Bible, Satan is labeled as "The Great Deceiver". IS IT POSSIBLE that some..........most...............ALL of the bible could have been authored by Satan ?
@ OP...
My question: What is your reason for this thread?
1 Corinthians 2:16
For who has known the mind of the Lord, that he may instruct him? But we have the mind of Christ.
Romans 11:34
34 “Who has known the mind of the Lord? Or who has been his counselor?”
The Old Testament is about a God, written about by men, as they imagined God to be, which is an earth-god who could be manipulated by a special class of people called, Israel, which means to be able to direct God. A god who is manipulable by men is by definition, Satan, to anyone else, not being of the Israel.
Originally posted by RonPaulsMainMan
I have a question.
In the Bible, Satan is labeled as "The Great Deceiver". IS IT POSSIBLE that some..........most...............ALL of the bible could have been authored by Satan ?
Originally posted by jmdewey60
The Old Testament is about a God, written about by men, as they imagined God to be, which is an earth-god who could be manipulated by a special class of people called, Israel, which means to be able to direct God. A god who is manipulable by men is by definition, Satan, to anyone else, not being of the Israel.
In contrast, the New Testament God fights against the man-made God of the Old Testament because He cares about all people, and not just the satan people. Jesus came to free us from that kind of earth-god, and to become followers of the true, universal God.edit on 17-10-2011 by jmdewey60 because: (no reason given)
Paul says,
Correct me if Im wrong , but didn't Jesus practice Judaism ?
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by RonPaulsMainMan
Paul says,
Correct me if Im wrong , but didn't Jesus practice Judaism ?
But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law,
so that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons.
It seems he was an heir to the promise that he was to transmit to us who believe in him. I think this is what Paul meant by "being under the Law", and not necessarily that he was obligated to keep it, being the giver, himself, of the new law. Jesus kept that law which he knew spiritually, which just so happened to have a certain degree of parallelism with that old law which he came to replace.edit on 17-10-2011 by jmdewey60 because: (no reason given)
No, I was getting it out of a book, Jesus According to Paul, where the author quotes out of the undisputed books of Paul. He has a separate chapter for dealing with what they did to Jesus after Paul died.
Originally posted by Rustami
reply to post by jmdewey60
this is'nt quoting from one of those supposed "forged" books you were talking about on the other thread is it?
No, Philippians is not one of the forged ones, and why I quote it.
It's a short list, 7 real ones out of 13 claimed.
Philippians, 1 & 2 Corinthians, Galatians, Romans, 1 Thessalonians, Philemon.
I will check out that thread later tonight.
Paul says,
But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law,
so that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons.
It seems he was an heir to the promise that he was to transmit to us who believe in him. I think this is what Paul meant by "being under the Law", and not necessarily that he was obligated to keep it, being the giver, himself, of the new law. Jesus kept that law which he knew spiritually, which just so happened to have a certain degree of parallelism with that old law which he came to replace.
I make some comments "on the fly". Depends on the complexity, where some things are pretty straightforward and I can answer a question right away.
Do you just make all this up on the fly? Your starting to become embarrassing even being a part of my thread. I do wish you would leave as you are completely ignorant of even the simple matters found in the Holy Bible.
What about Luke 10:25-26? Is not this pure Judaism?
Originally posted by Lazarus Short
1MrsJesusChrist sez:
"...another Heir to the throne or One who sits at Gods Left Hand and the only one left is GOD's Evil Lunatic (Moonlike) Daughter."
Can you back up the existence of this person with in-context Scripture? I'm thinking you can't.
Tell me this,
god is omnipotent and omnipresent.
so why did he put a tree in the garden?
maybe not omnipotent enough to see the future?
maybe just a little blind and not omnipresent enough to not to see them steal his apples?
or can morning star blind the old man?
we have gone through all this!
because god will not share his apples?
because he did not have the sense to put a wall around the apple tree?
man was INERSENT!
morning star told man to take the apple.
SO god blames man???
please think about this .
then give a answer.