Hi Amadeus,
Your last post was a definite improvement, though work still needs to be done . Here's what you did right; you furnished direct quotes with full
source notes and very importantly, tried to limit yourself to just one topic(at least in the second stage of your post). Thank you. You also
implicitly furnished a clearer summation of your thesis(s)/theory(ies), but alas it(they) still shift(s) somewhat. Well done nevertheless..
You use Clement of Rome(96AD) and others [yet we will limit ourselves to Clement this post] but instead of bolstering your theorie(s) he
seriously jeopardises them .
In addition to I Corinthians, he paraphrases from the Gospel of Matthew, and five other New Testament books: I Peter, James, Hebrews, Paul's letters
to the Romans, and Ephesians. (It must be observed that, having lived in Rome, Clement was thus personally acquainted with Paul and Peter whose deaths
he mentions ).
Clement rather than using the customary formula for citing a writing, uses the the phrase "remember the words of the Lord Jesus" instead. This is
because around AD 100 there were no written gospels in wide circulation that he could use authoritatively.
A huge claim supported by flimsy 'evidence'. Here we have another theory from you --because there were "no written Gospels in wide circulation
before 100AD" Clement uses the phrase "remember the words of Lord Jesus". In serious academic parlance you will be laughed out of town, I fear
...At least you're now admitting there was a written Gospel in circulation before 100AD! Well done.
Basically you're holding the wrong end of the stick. Clement considers the words of Jesus to be on a par with the OT writings, thats why he
introduces them with a similar formula (Clem 13:1b-2 & Clem 46:8): Clem 13:1b-2, "Especially we should remember the words which the Lord Jesus spoke,
when He taught clemency and long-suffering. For thus He spake Have mercy, that ye may receive mercy: forgive, that it may be forgiven to you. As ye
do, so shall it be done to you. As ye give, so shall it be given unto you. As ye judge, so shall ye be judged. As ye show kindness, so shall kindness
be showed unto you. With what measure ye mete, it shall be measured withal to you."
Infact even as severe a detractor as
Donald Hagner, 'The Use of Old and New Testaments in Clement of Rome' (1973) says: 'While it seems DIFFICULT TO DENY that Clement, writing from
Rome in AD95, was acquainted with the SYNOPTIC GOSPELS, his epistle provides us with little positive indication of this acquaintance.' (p.332).
EXAMPLE ONE (from around AD 95) 1 Clem 13:1b-2 which kind of reminds one of Matthew 7:1-2 'For thus He spake: saying, show mercy, that ye may be
shown mercy unto you: forgive, that it may be forgiven to you. As ye behave to others, so also will they behave to you. As ye give, so shall ye get.
As ye judge, so shall ye be judged. As ye show kindness, so shall kindness be showed unto you. With what measure ye mete, it shall be measured withal
to you.'
Not exactly verbatim Gospel Greek is it?Although the words may sound familiar, no single sentence in the passage is an exact quotation from any known
Gospel canonical or otherwise…
Clement was PARAPHRASING Matthew. The point is not whether he quotes the Gospel verbatim , the more pertinent issue is that he’s remarkably
consistent with the Gospel as we know it today. Even you're forced to acknowledge, "Although the words may sound familiar". It is therefore
becoming apparent even to you (perhaps subconsciously), that there were no FUNDAMENTAL doctrinal changes taking place between the time of the
Apostles and the time of Clement of Rome. All the vital 'concepts' of Christianity, if you will, were already firmly in place. Infact Clement says
the Apostles received the Gospel from Jesus Christ .
42:1 "The Apostles received for us the gospel from our Lord Jesus Christ; our Lord Jesus Christ received it from God. "
"Woe to that man [by whom offences come]: For it were better for him that he had never been born, than that he should cast a stumbling-block before
one of my Elect Ones. Yea, it were better for him that a Millstone should be hung about [ him?] and he should be sunk into the depths of the sea, than
if he should cast a stumbling-block before any one of my Little Ones.” Notice all the extra words Clement quotes here (e.g. “elect ones”, “little
ones” ) and the absence of the referenece to “the Son of Man”---all happily placed into the mouth of Iesous---and Clement’s citation may well reflect
a more primitive version of these logia than what appears in the “canonical” and council approved gospels-------in other words, the tradition had not
yet jelled into firm and widely accepted writing format around AD 100. Ands yet you seem to think the NT was "substantially completed" by AD 100:
Amadeus, your gripe with the above is that it doesn’t incorporate the phrase ‘Son of Man’ so in your opinion Jesus as 'Son of Man' must have
either been a later invention of the ‘church’ or a later addition to the Gospel. Absence of evidence does not mean evidence of absence. Do you know
how many times Clement refers to Jesus as the Son of God?(that will be your homework for today).
"..For as God lives, and as the Lord Jesus Christ lives, and the Holy Spirit 59:4 ... let all the nations know that you are God alone and Jesus
Christ your Son ... 64:1 Finally, my God {the Father} ... who has chosen our Lord Jesus Christ ... ... give to every soul ... faith, fear, peace,
patience ... through our high priest and protector, Jesus Christ ...” (Clement of Rome, First Epistle to the Corinthians)
Which is a more revolutionary/’blasphemous’ concept, Jesus as 'Son of God 'or Jesus as 'Son of Man'? If Jesus was already known as 'Son of God
'by Clement before AD96, then Jesus as 'Son of Man' poses absolutely no difficulty. Besides the phrase 'Son of Man' is found in Daniel and is
older than Christianity. Jesus frequently used this title for himself; no serious person dare suggest all verses in the Gospel where the phrase ‘Son
of Man’ appears are later day "council approved" inventions or additions to the Gospel..
**But more importantly, where is the 'massive' evolution to FUNDAMENTAL Christian doctrine and 'wording' you imagine between the time of
Clement and the apostles. ? I'm still waiting for ONE instance of it ..
And finally Amadeus you boldly state, " they still had to undergo some massive changes in wording before they begin to resemble what you are reading
today in your council approved NT..."
I sincerely ask,where are the "massive changes" up to now Amadeus?
Here are samples just from Clement’s First Epistle to show how developed Christian doctrine already was at this stage:
7:4 "Let us look steadfastly to the blood of Christ, and see how precious in the sight of God is his blood, which having been poured out for our
salvation, brought to the whole world the grace of repentance. "
--Jesus as Saviour. Jesus as redeemer of the World. The cleansing power his blood .
8:1 "The ministers of the grace of God spake by the Holy Spirit concerning repentance; "
--The concept of the Holy Spirit.
13:1 "Let us therefore, brethren, be humble, laying aside all boasting and pride, and folly and wrath, and let us do that which is written; for the
Holy Spirit saith, Let not the wise boast in his wisdom, nor the strong in his strength, nor the rich in his riches; but let him that boasteth make
his boast in the Lord, even by seeking him and doing judgment and justice. Let us especially remember the words of our Lord Jesus Christ which he
spake when teaching gentleness and long-suffering, for he spake thus:.."
--Another refrence to the Holy Spirit.
16:2 "Our Lord Jesus Christ, who is the sceptre of the majesty of God, came not in the arrogance of boasting and pride, though he was able to do so;
but in humility, even as the Holy Spirit spake concerning him."
--Jesus as Lord,as Scepter(power,ruler) with God. Jesus as more than a man, since he could have chosen the manner of his own birth. In this regard,
we have already seen his refrences to jesus as Son of God.
36:1 "This is the way, beloved, in which we found our salvation; even Jesus Christ, the high priest of our oblations, the champion and defender of
our weakness. "
--Jesus as High Priest.
THE FIRST EPISTLE OF CLEMENT TO THE CORINTHIANS
CHAPTER 42
42:3 "They, therefore, having received the promises, having been fully persuaded by the resurrection of our Lord Jesus Christ, and having been
confirmed by the word of God, with the full persuasion of the Holy Spirit, went forth preaching the good tidings that the kingdom of God was at hand.
"
--Jesus resurrected.
note: "I Corinthians was written in 55 AD. One reason why we can assume that is because forty years later in about 96 AD, Clement wrote a letter to
the church at Corinth just as Paul had done. In that letter he writes,"Read your letter from the blessed Apostle Paul again." What letter is Clement
referring to? He is referring to I Corinthians, the very letter in which the Doctrinal Gospel was written down for the first time, and he quotes from
I Corinthians 15:20 talking about the resurrection", (Epistle of Clement to Corinth, Early Christian Writings, op. Cit., p 36, section 24)
etc. etc, etc.
It becomes immediately apparent to any fair minded person that the fundaments of Christ's nature , purpose and identity were already
substantially in place by 100AD . It humors me when an hapless detractor, starving for morsels, cries foul because Clement of Rome does not
include the phrase 'Son of Man' in his paraphrase of Matthew ! This omission is somehow to be construed as a fundamental lack/shift in
Christian thought from the 1st to the 2nd centuries AD. Such desperation speaks for itself .
Best Wishes to Everyone,
[edit on 25-11-2004 by Logician]