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Video: Judge Admits That The Court Is A Common Law Court - Are Freemen Correct?

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posted on Apr, 29 2011 @ 10:40 PM

Originally posted by Jean Paul Zodeaux
reply to post by Wrong

Here's a legal thing. Bring forth the evidence. I want cited case law. You know what case law is right? Not some youtube video or something from a third party website aka abovetopsecret or actual case law.

You can't have it both ways. You are increasingly demonstrating your ignorance of the law. A case thrown out of court has no "case law" to support it. Either you are a disinfo agent who believes people are too stupid to see through your stupidity, or you are that stupid. Either way, it doesn't take a "legal expert" to know that someone entering into a court seeking a dismissal and either gets that dismissal or is "thrown out of court", will not have any "case law" to back it up. The "case" never went to trial, hence, no case law.

No youre the one showing your ignorance. In EVERY case someone gets 'thrown out of court'. Either you lose and your case or you win. So in every case someones case is thrown out.

Some cases are 'thrown out' by verdict after trial.

Most cases are 'thrown out' prior to trial.

Guess what? You can appeal being thrown out. When you are thrown out of court you can appeal it. When the appellate court decides your case where you 'thrown out of court' you have...(ready?)

A COMMON LAW CASE. Also known as stare decisis. Stare decisis is latin for Its been decided. A common law system of jurisprudence.

This whole thread is the wackiest thread on ATS. That says a lot. I dont blame everyone its for a lack of knowing the terms. Someone gets an idea they understand something they dont and run with it. They're smooth enough to convince a few ofthers of their wrong position and the whole village goes to pot.

posted on Apr, 29 2011 @ 10:43 PM

Originally posted by greenovni

Originally posted by czerro
Yes I misspelled ONE word at 6 am, when you misspelled the same word about 50 times across many posts...and it is the crux of your argument. This suggests that MINE was a typo, and yours suggests a serious misunderstanding of all factors involved. There is a simple solution to your situation as you eventually described it in your response. Sometimes liberal justices will decide that the acting father in the formative years is still responsible for the support of their non-fraternal children simply because they willingly took on the role when they believed they were the father AND/OR that their continuance in that role is in the benefit of the child. Why don't you simply get a dna test and put the whole thing to rest? The only reason you wouldn't go this route, In good Faith, is that you Are the father and it IS your kid. That's the only reason you would leap on some weird freeman BS about how the judiciary system has no right to prosecute you. You are grasping at straws and still continue to make yourself look worse to a court of law. Pray that your prosecutor is unaware of your proclivity for abovetopsecret.

I wonder what your problem is.

# 1 English is my second language, thank you for correcting my spelling!

# 2 This happened from a 1 night stand, never was there for said child, have never even seen said child's school report card, never attended any birthdays & I have seen said child 3 - 4 times in my life if that so your argument of "willingly taking the role of a fater" is null.

A home DNA test was taken, came back as NOT THE FATHER, biologically impossible. Asked the court to ORDER a DNA test to legally establish paternity, denied by the judge because the time period to contest paternity has long passed.

So yes, I HAVE IN GOOD FAITH been asking these bastards to ORDER the legal DNA test, been denied which calls for another way to handle the fraud committed by both the courts and the custodial mother.

You are really not gonna like my answer.

You CAN be made to pay child support EVEN if you can show conclusively you are NOT the father.

I agree its really messed up. Its unjust and in my opinion unconstitutional but the courts main interest is the child, not the possible father.

posted on Jun, 3 2011 @ 03:44 AM
Where did this post go? _javascript:icon('

Video: Judge Admits That The Court Is A Common Law Court - Are ...
Mar 10, 2011 ... 'British Accreditation Registry'? Are you honestly insane? You are seeing acronyms where none exist. The term 'bar' comes from the fact that ...

A search of ATS had the above post but it is not in the thread.

When I asked a lawyer about BAR and the American BAR, he was reluctant to share. Later in the conversation, and I'll quote him here,"That deed was never transferred" I had asked him why we were under England's rule.

How did a state become a state? The organic document called the Northwest ordinance, and in that document it states contract will be the rule of law.

This is my opinion;
The real terrorist are people who allow this land to be governed by BAR member morons.

AS for common law, when one is brought before a grand jury that is common law.
A grand jury should be a thousand jurist, very few powers that be (morons) would spend the cash to bribe the thousand jurist. As it is now, we the people lost this great land to the BAR.

posted on Jun, 18 2011 @ 04:51 PM
reply to post by greenovni

Black's Law Dictionary 8th

court of law. 1. Broadly, any judicial tribunal that administers the laws of a state or nation. 2.
A court that proceeds according to the course of the common law, and that is governed by its rules
and principles. Cf. court of equity.

court of equity.A court that (1) has jurisdiction in equity, (2) administers and decides
controversies in accordance with the rules, principles, and precedents of equity, and (3) follows
the forms and procedures of chancery. Cf. court of law. [Cases: Courts 42(7).]

obligor (ob-l-gororob-l-gor).1. One who has undertaken an obligation;
a promisor or debtor. UCC § 9-102(a)(59). 2. Under the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act,
any person who owes a duty of support. 3.Archaic. One who obliges another to do something;


(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the right to enforce the obligation of a party to pay an instrument is subject to the following:

(1) a defense of the obligor based on (i) infancy of the obligor to the extent it is a defense to a simple contract, (ii) duress, lack of legal capacity, or illegality of the transaction which, under other law, nullifies the obligation of the obligor, (iii) fraud that induced the obligor to sign the instrument with neither knowledge nor reasonable opportunity to learn of its character or its essential terms, or (iv) discharge of the obligor in insolvency proceedings;

(2) a defense of the obligor stated in another section of this Article or a defense of the obligor that would be available if the person entitled to enforce the instrument were enforcing a right to payment under a simple contract; and

(3) a claim in recoupment of the obligor against the original payee of the instrument if the claim arose from the transaction that gave rise to the instrument; but the claim of the obligor may be asserted against a transferee of the instrument only to reduce the amount owing on the instrument at the time the action is brought.

(b) The right of a holder in due course to enforce the obligation of a party to pay the instrument is subject to defenses of the obligor stated in subsection (a)(1), but is not subject to defenses of the obligor stated in subsection (a)(2) or claims in recoupment stated in subsection (a)(3) against a person other than the holder.

(c) Except as stated in subsection (d), in an action to enforce the obligation of a party to pay the instrument, the obligor may not assert against the person entitled to enforce the instrument a defense, claim in recoupment, or claim to the instrument (Section 3-306) of another person, but the other person's claim to the instrument may be asserted by the obligor if the other person is joined in the action and personally asserts the claim against the person entitled to enforce the instrument. An obligor is not obliged to pay the instrument if the person seeking enforcement of the instrument does not have rights of a holder in due course and the obligor proves that the instrument is a lost or stolen instrument.

(d) In an action to enforce the obligation of an accommodation party to pay an instrument, the accommodation party may assert against the person entitled to enforce the instrument any defense or claim in recoupment under subsection (a) that the accommodated party could assert against the person entitled to enforce the instrument, except the defenses of discharge in insolvency proceedings, infancy, and lack of legal capacity.

(e) In a consumer transaction, if law other than this article requires that an instrument include a statement to the effect that the rights of a holder or transferee are subject to a claim or defense that the issuer could assert against the original payee, and the instrument does not include such a statement: (1) the instrument has the same effect as if the instrument included such a statement; (2) the issuer may assert against the holder or transferee all claims and defenses that would have been available if the instrument included such a statement; and (3) the extent to which claims may be asserted against the holder or transferee is determined as if the instrument included such a statement.

(f) This section is subject to law other than this article that establishes a different rule for consumer transactions.
14th Amendment

Section 1.
All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.
The United States Code

Title 15 United States Code § 645 (a): " Whoever makes any statement knowing it to be false, for the
purpose of obtaining money, property, or anything of value, shall be punished by a fine of not more than
$5,000 under this title or imprisoned for not more than two years, or both."

Title 18 United States Code § 241: " Whoever, under color of law, statute, ordinance, regulation or
custom, willfully subjects any inhabitant of any state territory or district, to the deprivations of any rights,
privileges or immunities secured or protected by the United States Constitution or laws of the United
States, shall be fined under this title or imprisoned for not more than ten years, or both.

Title 18 United States Code § 241: " Whoever in disguise enters the premises of another, with the
intent to prevent or hinder a citizen's free exercise or enjoyment of any right or privilege secured to a
citizen by the United States Constitution, or because of his having exercised same, shall be fined
under this title or imprisoned not more than ten years, or both; and if such acts include
kidnapping or an attempt to kidnap [via false arrest or imprisonment] shall be fined under this
title or imprisoned for any term of years or for life, or both.

Title 42 United States Code § 1983 (21) " Whoever, under color of law of any statute, ordinance,
regulation or custom or usage, of any state or territory or the District of Columbia, subjects, or causes to
be subjected, any citizen of the United States or other party within the jurisdiction thereof to the
deprivation of any rights, privileges or immunities secured by the United States Constitution and laws,
shall be liable to the party injured in an action at law, suit in equity or other proper proceeding in

posted on Jun, 19 2011 @ 03:51 PM
there was no "mutual consideration" in the signing of the "certificate/contract". for a contract to be valid, there must be an equal "give and take"... However a "social contract" was made prior to the signing of the birth "certificate", which was a social contract of a "security" interest, but the social contract could be seen as fraudulent, due to the fact that the the individual who signed, was unaware of the additional "clause" of the contract which were party to, not to mention that the original agreement has been changed since the signing, bringing in a need for renewal..It would be like making an agreement on one thing, having it change without your knowledge, and still being responsible for the newly added clause..I'm still learning, so if anyone has any input, I'd like to hear it.

posted on Jun, 19 2011 @ 09:43 PM
Black's Law 8th

homo (hoh-moh), n.[Latin] Hist. 1. A male human. 2. A member of humankind; a human
being of either sex. 3. A slave. 4. A vassal; a feudal tenant. 5. A retainer, dependent, or servant. Pl.
homines.See HOMINES.
homo alieni juris (ay-lee- or al-ee-ee-nIjoor-is). See FILIUSFAMILIAS.
homo chartularius (kahr-ch-lair-ee-s). A slave manumitted by charter.
homo commendatus (kom-n-day-ts). A man who commends himself
into another's power for protection or support.
homo ecclesiasticus (e-klee-z[h]ee-as-ti-ks). A church vassal; one bound to serve
a church, esp. in an agricultural capacity.
homo exercitalis (eg-zr-sh-tay-lis). A man of the army; a soldier.
homo feodalis (fyoo-day-lis). A fee man; a vassal or tenant who holds a fee.
homo fiscalis (fis-kay-lis). A servant or vassal belonging to the treasury (fiscus). — Also
termed homo fiscalinus.
homo francus (frangk-s).1.Hist. In England, a freeman. 2. A Frenchman.
homo ingenuus (in-jen-yoo-s). A free and lawful man; a yeoman.
homo liber (lI-br).1. A free man. 2. A freeman lawfully competent to be a juror. 3.
An allodial proprietor, as distinguished from a feudal tenant. See ALLODIAL.
homo ligius (lI-jee-s). A liege man, esp. the vassal of a king.
Black's Law Dictionary (8th ed. 2004) , Page 2152
homo novus (noh-vs).1. A new tenant or vassal; one invested with a new fee. 2. A
tenant pardoned after being convicted of a crime.
homo pertinens (pr-t-nenz). A feudal bondman or vassal; one
belonging to the soil.
homo regius (ree-jee-s). A king's vassal.
homo Romanus (r-may-ns). A Roman. • A term used in Germanic law
codes to describe the Roman inhabitants of Gaul and other former Roman provinces.
homo sui juris (s[y]oo-Ijoor-is). See PATERFAMILIAS.
homo trium litterarum (trI-m lit--rair-m). [Latin “a man of
three letters”] A thief. • The “three letters” refers to f, u, and r, for the Latin word fur (“thief”).

legal man.See LEGALIS HOMO.

legalis homo (l-gay-lis hoh-moh). [Latin “lawful man”] Hist. A person who has
full legal capacity and full legal rights; one who has not been deprived of any rights in court by
outlawry, excommunication, or infamy. • A legalis homo was said to stand rectus in curia (“right in
court”). A lawful man was able to serve as a juror and to swear an oath. — Also termed legal man;
lawful man; lageman; liber et legalis homo. See RECTUS IN CURIA. Pl. legales homines
(l-gay-leez hom--neez).

posted on Dec, 1 2011 @ 07:46 PM
Well? What ever happened with Your court date, greenovni? I just read 28 pages of a thread and someone forgot to write the last chapter.

posted on Jan, 9 2016 @ 06:58 PM
The following statement is true: My cousin and I was recently arrested while visiting the Smokey Mountains in Gattlinburg, Tennessee for public intoxication. We were "cuffed and stuffed", taken to a holding facility, and while I was in my holding cell, i noticed dried blood on the wall from a previous customer after we were terrorized by the arresting officer who tried to bully us into signing a consent form which, WE DID NOT! Then we were transported to Sevier county jail and while being transported in a S.U.V. type cruiser and sitting in the back seat cuffed, my cousin noticed the officer driving and exceeding the speed limit of 35 by 14 m.p.h. and realized he didn't even have his emergency beacons on! I can't help but think in the event Dale Jr had to hit his brakes hard, my cousin and I would of slammed our heads into the back of the wall divider which seriously could of caused head injuries since our hands were cuffed behind us and had no way to brace ourselves for impact since there were no safety belt securing us in the seat. When we arrived at the County Jail, we were put into a cell that had no running water, the commode was not working, there were very cold air blasting us through the air vents, the lights in the cell were extremely bright and all we had to lay on was cement. I asked for a drink of water and was denied. I could not help but wonder this was adding duress to our situation like some sort of a tactic (deprivation) they used to psychologically cause us to make decisions that might have jeopardized our Constitutional rights. Also my cousin had medicine for his reflux problem which they denied giving him, and needless to say we did not sleep that night Then the next day we appeared before the Magistrate. He asked me how I plead and replied by saying: "All i know we were at our truck being peaceful and minding our own business when the cops arrived to collect money. The Magistrate commented: "I wish i could get some of that money", and nothing else said, i was escorted out of the room and back to my cell. As far as i know there was no plea even by the prosecutor. According to Tennessee Code: unless i am a danger to myself, or annoy anyone in public, or damage property they cannot find me guilty. We did none of those things!, we were at the pickup truck that was parked at a public garage minding our own business when the "terrorist", "money collectors" or police (you pick) arrived and asked us if we were ok, and stated he smelled alcohol on our breaths and asked if we wanted to take a breathalizer test which we denied, then as far as i was concerned they kidnapped us. We did not give consent for them to take our wallet (unlawful search and seizure). We are supposed to go to court on Feb. 10th for a hearing on a 3rd degree misdemeanor. Can anyone advise? I know about Common Law and I did ask for a pubic defender, so does this mean i entered a contract with the legal system and lost my vested rights? Should i even go back there? Will they throw the case out since i'm not there to give them jurisdiction? Please let me know what you think. Thanks

posted on Jan, 9 2016 @ 07:20 PM
a reply to: Jean Paul Zodeaux

I live in Ohio and hired a attorney who misrepped me. I filed a complaint to the Ohio Supreme Court Disciplinary board and made him tear up a contract i had with him.

posted on Jan, 9 2016 @ 09:45 PM
Wow, this thread is all over the place. Wish I happened on it sooner. Will need to go through it again, lots to check out.

a reply to: travelerjoe

If you haven't filed affidavits yet, do so. Put everything in writing, force them to rebutt in writing all the facts as you know them.

I personally will never ever hire a lawyer and will rightfully refuse public representation. Here is why:

Looking in the 7 Corpus Juris Secundum (C.J.S.)(2003) we see uner 'Attorney and Client' that "his first duty is to the courts and the public and not the client" and when there is a conflict, lawyers must yield to those allegiances over their client.

Likewise, applying for a lawyer makes you a "ward of the court". And looking at the legal definition of that term, we see that a ward of the court are "infants and persons of unsound mind placed by the court under the care of a guardian."

As far as challenging jurisdiction goes, it must be made 'in propria persona' and not pleaded by an attorney or in a 'pro se' status as both of those admit jurisdiction.

They will try to confuse you and say 'pro se' is the same as 'pro per' but it is not. Here is where the difference lies. 'pro per' is in one's own proper person and 'pro se' is for one's own behalf. 'pro se' arguably make you an officer of the court, to act on your own behalf, 'pro per' means in your proper human state be it man or woman. If these terms were meant to be synonymous there would not be two terms to begin with.

They will try to compell you to take court appointed council. But, we know that the First Amendment ot the Constitution protects freedom of association, and by extension prvents compelled association, from everyone including government.

A quick history of the 6th Amendment, will also net what I believe to be the 'origional intent' of the Amendment. With the passage of the First Judiciary Act of September 24, 1789 "the House and Senate were finally coming to an agreement on the express and explicit language and form of the Bill of Rights. Therefore, their meanings are to be compatible." [Williams v. Florida, 1904]

And, looking at the origional statues at large [First Congress, Session I, Chapter 20, Page 20. 1 Stat at L. (pg92)] "And be it further enacted, That in all the courts in the United States, the parties may plead and manage their own causes personally OR by the assistance of such counsel OR attorneys at law as by the rules of said courts respectfully shall be permitted to manage and conduct causes therein."

Armed with the above, they cannot compell association with them, nor can they make the determination that one chosing 'pro per' is synonymous with 'pro se'. Object quicly, if they try to skew the record and enter 'pro se' for 'pro per'.

But, this is not legal advise, only some applicable portions of years of study for you to chew on and begin your journey.

posted on Jan, 20 2016 @ 12:33 PM
a reply to: Wrong

It is much easier to dupe you then to explain to you how you were duped! Maybe this Alaskan lady can try at least.

Realtime Superior Court true Common Law Judge

Just a note: Muslims are born into a system of Sharia Law that their birthright. Americans were born into a system of common law that is their birthright. Common Law is the Law of the LAND according to Article VII of the original Constitution.

Read all that link has to offer and your still duped my first statement is proven.....

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