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Originally posted by mnemeth1
An innocent person is a person who has not initiated violence or stolen/damaged the property of another.
If you can logically justify why initiating violence against such a person is good, then you can refute my logic.
Originally posted by mnemeth1
Yes, if a person sees that an accident is about to cause harm to another, they are legitimately entitled to use force to prevent that accident from occurring if possible.
Originally posted by mnemeth1
reply to post by Mr Tranny
Under the non-aggression principle, people are entitled to defend themselves as well as others from the initiation of violence.
Whether or not the violence is intentional or not is immaterial, unless that violence was voluntarily agreed to before hand, such as sports.
The use of force to protect oneself from harm is a given in any situation and does not violate the non-aggression principle.
Originally posted by mnemeth1
If they did not intentionally initiate violence, then whatever they did that resulted in harm to another was an accident. Unless the person was grossly negligent in their actions, then they are innocent of intent.
....................
Bottom line is that it would be irrational for the person who was harmed to initiate violence against the other over an accident, so the non-aggression principle still applies.
Originally posted by Mr Tranny
Originally posted by mnemeth1
reply to post by Mr Tranny
Under the non-aggression principle, people are entitled to defend themselves as well as others from the initiation of violence.
Whether or not the violence is intentional or not is immaterial, unless that violence was voluntarily agreed to before hand, such as sports.
The use of force to protect oneself from harm is a given in any situation and does not violate the non-aggression principle.
That contradicts what you posted earlier.
Originally posted by mnemeth1
If they did not intentionally initiate violence, then whatever they did that resulted in harm to another was an accident. Unless the person was grossly negligent in their actions, then they are innocent of intent.
....................
Bottom line is that it would be irrational for the person who was harmed to initiate violence against the other over an accident, so the non-aggression principle still applies.
If they did not intentionally initiate violence, then they are innocent.
There is no justification for initiating violence against an innocent person.
You can defend your/other people life/lives from someone’s actions using violence.
Even if it is an accident……………….
That is contradiction if I have ever seen it.
Originally posted by mnemeth1
reply to post by Mr Tranny
Under the non-aggression principle, people are entitled to defend themselves as well as others from the initiation of violence.
Whether or not the violence is intentional or not is immaterial, unless that violence was voluntarily agreed to before hand, such as sports.
The use of force to protect oneself from harm is a given in any situation and does not violate the non-aggression principle.
edit on 23-2-2011 by mnemeth1 because: (no reason given)
The non-aggression principle says the initiation of violence is immoral.