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Originally posted by StealthyKat
reply to post by MysticPearl
OK....but the point is....that when they CAN'T control their "urges"....a child's life is ruined. So even if they get help, that child is hurt FOREVER. So their "preferences" mean nothing. Studies show that it cannot be controlled. I don't care what consenting adults do, but this is something else.
Originally posted by StealthyKat
reply to post by Lemon.Fresh
How DARE you put the blame on the parents OR the kids! These pedophiles are very skilled at manipulation. There is NO exuse for it PERIOD. We aren't talking about teen sex here....we are talking about predators abusing children, and they are human trash.
At what age is a person no longer a child? Do they need to be of a certain appearance? Do they require a certain IQ before they'll ever be considered a real adult? What if they're 50 but have the IQ of a 12 year old? Where is the line drawn? When does sex go from a pleasure to a perversion and/or the result of a mental disorder, and for what exact reasons? Do we really have the right to tell someone they can't have sex because of their IQ, or their age, or their appearance?
Originally posted by pexx421
I dont support molesting "children" as todays society defines them. That being said....I think its highly interesting that for the last....oh, say 500000 to 2million years that humans have been around (by varying estimates), all our forefathers, until the last 100 years or so, usually wound up mating with our foremothers at ages around 11-13. Now we are categorically labelling all of our fathers throughout all of recorded human history as "mentally ill" or "evil", or "sick bastards in need of castration or murder". Hm, always interesting to me.
Actually, I don't think we were talking about predators abusing children... You might be missing the point..
I was 17 once...and I had sex with my still 14 year old girlfriend. When I was 20 (not even old enough to legally drink), I had sex with my 36 year old girlfriend. What's the difference between the two? Both were mature enough to consent, physically and intellectually. If anything, my 36 year old gf was LESS mature in both ways than my 14 year old gf due to prior drug use and anorexia! I'm pretty sure that doesn't make me "mentally ill".
That being said....I think its highly interesting that for the last....oh, say 500000 to 2million years that humans have been around (by varying estimates), all our forefathers, until the last 100 years or so, usually wound up mating with our foremothers at ages around 11-13. Now we are categorically labelling all of our fathers throughout all of recorded human history as "mentally ill" or "evil", or "sick bastards in need of castration or murder".
Going a step farther on that, the the human physiology has evolved for sexual arousal to be related to such "markers" as youthful appearances and mindset. This is likely a huge factor in why disney/nickelodeon are able to sell these teenage "divas" so effectively even today. Throughout most of history, the man became man upon reaching the ages of 16 to 25 and would then take a wife sometimes as young as 9 years old - if the girl had reached puberty, she was ready to be "married off" as quickly as possible.
Yes, that basically sums it up. Consider this: a girl like the one shown above seduces a man into sex (but he rigorously declined her offer at the start), and word manages to reach the police. Is it right that the man should serve jail time (he would in reality), was he wrong in having sex with a young girl who clearly wanted it? Was he mentally ill? Or was he just having some sex with another human being who was perfectly capable of it, and enjoyed it as much as him? Please explain exactly where the immoral factor comes from here when there is no victim or suffering of any type? The obvious conclusion is we simply think people younger than a certain age shouldn't be having sex, no matter if they want it or not, we attach an immoral label onto the act - for no clear reason that I can see.
I think the OP's questions boil down to "what constitutes abuse in relation to sex, and is the abuser him/herself to be considered 'mentally ill'?"...that's much easier question to answer