I have a question that I haven't seen raised yet.
If North Korea really only targeted "civilian" areas, how is it that 50% of the people killed were South Korean military soldiers?
When the U.S. kills civilians, we call them "casualties of wars", or "collateral damage".
My point is, are we really sure that NK didn't target valid military targets? The people who got killed is strong evidence for this, and that's a
fact. Why aren't the civilians who got killed considered "collateral damage"?
edit on 24-11-2010 by harrytuttle because: (no reason
given)