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Originally posted by exponent
Originally posted by bsbray11
Explain the straw-man. I have links ready to illustrate what a straw-man really is. Good luck.
Where do you get the idea that I deny that any steel melted through these methods? Pretty sure I explained to you explicitly how I am not opposed to this theory.
Evidence of a severe high temperature corrosion attack on the steel, including oxidation and sulfication with subsequent intragranular melting
If you have a problem with my post please feel free to take it up with a mod. I'm just tired of being accused of all sorts when in reality I take issue with incorrect technical issues and don't involve myself in silly 'smoking gun' type proofs.
Originally posted by bsbray11
You said that the corrosion had nothing to do with melting, but that's not what this says:
And I agree with stewie that your post in question was either just an emotional outburst from yourself or else an attempt to bait me, considering it had no substance in it whatsoever.
Originally posted by exponent
Originally posted by bsbray11
You said that the corrosion had nothing to do with melting, but that's not what this says:
Under my post, click 'posts', then locate this thread and click 'thread posts'. Read the first post I made in this thread, the first response to your question. What did I say?
Originally posted by exponent
Melting is the breaking of bonds due to thermal energy. Corrosion is a chemical bonding process generally involving oxidation.
They are in no sense comparable.
Evidence of a severe high temperature corrosion attack on the steel, including oxidation and sulfication with subsequent intragranular melting
Then report it to the mods, I am not trying to bait you, I'm trying to point out that you're arguing with me over nothing at the moment it would seem.
Originally posted by exponent
Oh dear. How can you follow such simple instructions and still fail to notice that I have not been disagreeing with this claim in any sense at any point in this thread.
The only thing I've done is to try and correct you that 'iron-rich' does not mean pure-iron, and that this claim does not lend any validation to the controlled demolition theory.
I mean really, you've managed to start an argument with me over something I never disagreed with, and stated explicitly right at the start of the thread.
Originally posted by bsbray11
If you don't disagree then are you going to stop arguing with me now?
Originally posted by exponent
I'm more than happy to accept that this mechanism may have resulted in some iron compounds melting. That's what everyone involved in evaluating it, from FEMA to NIST to independent chemists seem to think. But none of them seem to think that it's indicative of any sort of conspiracy theory, as it does not require extreme chemistry or temperatures.
it does not require extreme chemistry
Evidence of a severe high temperature corrosion attack on the steel, including oxidation and sulfication with subsequent intragranular melting
Evidence of a severe high temperature corrosion attack on the steel, including oxidation and sulfication with subsequent intragranular melting
Originally posted by pteridine
That is what the report said. It is your interpretation that is incorrect.
I know you cannot explain your interpretation other than to keep harping on the formation of a high sulfur, intergranular melt.
Evidence of a severe high temperature corrosion attack on the steel, including oxidation and sulfication with subsequent intragranular melting
Originally posted by pteridine
Intergranular formation of a melt increased the rate of corrosion by speeding the oxidation of the iron.
The phenomenon was limited to near surface reaction
Describing it as molten iron is wrong.
Evidence of a severe high temperature corrosion attack on the steel, including oxidation and sulfidation with subsequent intragranular melting