posted on Aug, 26 2010 @ 02:39 PM
reply to post by Jean Paul Zodeaux
expanding upon what you stated, by sharing some thoughts....
it is well documented and a fact that the american government does not need to have an official declaration of war in order to participate in military
operations in another country.
so, logically then...
what makes us believe that the american government would overtly declare martial law to hundreds of millions of americans simultaneously?
this would probably not be a military martial law tactic.
if america is not required to formally declare war against other nations to commit acts of war, then odds are the american government would also not
overtly declare martial law to millions, either.
just a thought i had i thought i would share,
[edit on 26-8-2010 by Esoteric Teacher]