what are you talking about.
No need to respond.....I'll get me coat..!!
Originally posted by amantineI quote my post in another thread about the irrationality proof of pi we learn at school. A similar proof can be found here.
One proof of irrationality of pi:
Look at the following integral
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That iintegral has as values
I(2) = -2§á^2 + 24
I(3) = -24§á^2 + 240
I(4) = 2§á^4 - 360§á^2 + 3360
I(5) = 60§á^4 - 6720§á^2 + 60480
I(6) = -2§á^6 + 1680§á^4 - 151200§á^2 + 1330560
All sums of powers of §á. We will determine a maximum for the integral:
x(§á-x) ¡Ü 0.5§á(§á-0.5§á )
0.5§á(§á-0.5§á ) = 0.25§á^2
0.25§á^2 ¡Ü 3
x(§á-x) ¡Ü 3
Now the other part:
0 ¡Ü sin(x) ¡Ü 1
sin(x) ¡Ü 1
Filling this in and calculating the integral gives you an upperlimit for I(n) of §á*3^n/n!
Now let's assume §á is rational (and repeats): §á=p/q, where p and q are two whole numbers and the expression has been simplified as much as possible.
That means for example with I(4):
(2p^4 - 360p^2q^2 + 3360q^4)/q^4
Because this is an positive numbers that has been simplified as much as possible we can say:
1/q^4 ¡Ü (2p^4 - 360p^2q^2 + 3360q^4)/q^4
This is true for every I(n), so you can say:
1/q^n ¡Ü I(n)
We determined a upper limit for I(n), so 1/q^n is always smaller than that:
1/q^n ¡Ü §á*3^n/n!
1 ¡Ü §á*(3q)^n/n!
But lim(x->¡Þ ) x^n/n! goes to 0. That would mean:
lim(x->¡Þ ) 1 ¡Ü §á*(3q)^n/n!
gives
1 ¡Ü 0
This is ofcourse not true. That problem is our assumption that §á is rational. Q.E.D.
[edit on 18-6-2004 by amantine]
arctan(142857)*2=3.14157865............................. = PI
I'm trying to understand why when I do :
2*atan(142857142857142857)
I'm close to PI
and when I do 2*atan(142857142857142857142857)
I'm still closer to PI.
), but I was just thinking about the sequence 142857. The other day I
read that parabolas, circles and asymptotes are really just cross sections of right cones (conic sections). So obviously quadratic formulas map to a
higher order surface, of which we're seeing a slice.