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Originally posted by thisguyrighthere
reply to post by 4nsicphd
That goes back to the difference between "slavery next door" and "slavery in another country." It's much easier for people to turn a blind eye to children in a Nike shop in China or children having their arms lopped off because dad didnt pull enough iPod material from the mine in Africa or lines of thirsty and hungry pickers in a Mexican field than it is to turn away from the same situation a few towns over.
I have no idea what a 'Publix' is but I imagine their use of 'slave' labor is no different than any other supermarket. This is an issue with globalism and 'free trade'. Not local 'anti-discrimination' law.
Originally posted by TaxpayersUnleashed
reply to post by maybereal11
The commerce clause only effects state to state commerce.
It does not effect a business privately owned.
Now if a Multi state corporation trades between the states then yes.
However everything else is left up to the individuals themselves or the states.
Originally posted by K J Gunderson
Originally posted by Arcane Demesne
If that was a fact, how in the world did legislators, listening to their constituents, pass the civil rights act?! Are politicians more moral and just than the rest of the population....History tells us a different story.
So the civil rights act was passed after it was no longer needed?
Please explain to me why they would pass laws that were no longer needed.