reply to post by Lazarus Short
That the Jews told Christ they were never in bondage to any man!
While I don't see the immediate issue as one centring on theological debate, your assertion simply must be addressed.
The way you are interpreting this verse is wholly contrary to a truly vast proportion of the OT Scriptures — which those who were speaking would
have known all their lives! To suggest they were implying there had been no Hebrew bondage in Egypt is, I'm afraid nothing short of ludicrous.
The only way anyone could conceivably claim this statement means what you suggest is if they have wrenched it entirely out of context and deliberately
ignored the total impossibility stated above.
In context, here is what was said:
Jesus was saying to those Jews who had believed Him, "If you continue in My word, then you are truly disciples of Mine; and you will know the
truth, and the truth will make you free."
They answered Him, "We are Abraham's descendants and have never yet been enslaved to anyone; how is it that You say, 'You will become
Jesus answered them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, everyone who commits sin is the slave of sin.
The slave does not remain in the house forever; the son does remain forever. "So if the Son makes you free, you will be free indeed."
Gospel of John 8:36
answered him, i.e. specifically Jews who had believed in Him
, and it was these specific people who said we
descendants of Abraham— have never yet been enslaved. They were talking about themselves, not the entire Jewish nation!!
This is self-evident
to anyone reading the text in context.
It should be added that had they actually been suggesting the Jewish nation had never been enslaved they would have been the laughing stock of the
crowd, not to mention the nation!
I have to say, my friend, if you have actually been given your out-of-context interpretation by someone else this is sufficient evidence to
demonstrate they haven't the first clue about the Bible. Sadly.
[The other points you raise suggest also beggar belief, but as they are somewhat off-topic, suffice it to say that whoever claims:
The Anglo-Saxons (Saxons = Isaac's Sons) were Israelites
is either a complete ignoramus (particularly in terms of linguistic derivation) or a composer of idle fables.
And if we're talking Joseph Smith
then the latter is a bullseye and the former is too mild, hoodwinker
being the requisite